The House of Representatives convened at 9:30 a.m. and was called to order by Phil Carruthers, Speaker of the House.
Prayer was offered by Pastor Mark Hellmann, Grace Lutheran Church, Andover, Minnesota.
The roll was called and the following members were present:
Abrams | Evans | Kalis | Marko | Peterson | Tingelstad |
Anderson, B. | Farrell | Kelso | McCollum | Pugh | Tomassoni |
Anderson, I. | Finseth | Kielkucki | McElroy | Rest | Tompkins |
Bakk | Folliard | Kinkel | McGuire | Reuter | Trimble |
Bettermann | Garcia | Knight | Milbert | Rhodes | Tuma |
Biernat | Goodno | Knoblach | Molnau | Rifenberg | Tunheim |
Bishop | Greenfield | Koppendrayer | Mulder | Rostberg | Van Dellen |
Boudreau | Greiling | Koskinen | Mullery | Rukavina | Vickerman |
Bradley | Gunther | Kraus | Munger | Schumacher | Wagenius |
Broecker | Haas | Krinkie | Murphy | Seagren | Weaver |
Carlson | Harder | Kubly | Ness | Seifert | Wejcman |
Chaudhary | Hasskamp | Kuisle | Nornes | Sekhon | Wenzel |
Clark | Hausman | Larsen | Olson, E. | Skare | Westfall |
Commers | Hilty | Leighton | Olson, M. | Skoglund | Westrom |
Daggett | Holsten | Leppik | Opatz | Slawik | Winter |
Davids | Huntley | Lieder | Orfield | Smith | Wolf |
Dawkins | Jaros | Lindner | Osskopp | Solberg | Workman |
Dehler | Jefferson | Long | Osthoff | Stanek | Spk. Carruthers |
Delmont | Jennings | Luther | Ozment | Stang | |
Dempsey | Johnson, A. | Macklin | Paulsen | Sviggum | |
Dorn | Johnson, R. | Mahon | Pawlenty | Swenson, D. | |
Entenza | Juhnke | Mares | Paymar | Swenson, H. | |
Erhardt | Kahn | Mariani | Pelowski | Sykora | |
A quorum was present.
Otremba was excused.
The Chief Clerk proceeded to read the Journal of the preceding day. Rostberg moved that further reading of the Journal be suspended and that the Journal be approved as corrected by the Chief Clerk. The motion prevailed.
S. F. No. 1820 and H. F. No. 1299, which had been referred to the Chief Clerk for comparison, were examined and found to be identical with certain exceptions.
Jennings moved that the rules be so far suspended that S. F. No. 1820 be substituted for H. F. No. 1299 and that the House File be indefinitely postponed. The motion prevailed.
The following communications were received:
OFFICE OF THE GOVERNOR
SAINT PAUL 55155
The Honorable Phil Carruthers
Speaker of the House of Representatives
The State of Minnesota
Dear Speaker Carruthers:
It is my honor to inform you that I have received, approved, signed and deposited in the Office of the Secretary of State the following House Files:
H. F. No. 1863, relating to agriculture; establishing task force to make recommendations on modifications to the agricultural marketing and bargaining law.
H. F. No. 512, relating to municipalities; authorizing bankruptcy filing.
Warmest regards,
Arne H. Carlson
Governor
OFFICE OF THE SECRETARY OF STATE
ST. PAUL 55155
Speaker of the House of Representatives
The Honorable Allan H. Spear
President of the Senate
I have the honor to inform you that the following enrolled Acts of the 1997 Session of the State Legislature have been received from the Office of the Governor and are deposited in the Office of the Secretary of State for preservation, pursuant to the State Constitution, Article IV, Section 23:
S.F. No. | H.F. No. | Session Laws Chapter No. | Time and Date Approved 1997 | Date
Filed 1997 |
1863 | 142 | 10:10 a.m. May 13 | May 13 | |
703 | 145 | 10:30 a.m. May 13 | May 13 | |
72 | 147 | 10:25 a.m. May 13 | May 13 | |
512 | 148 | 10:12 a.m. May 13 | May 13 | |
Sincerely,
Joan Anderson Growe
Secretary of State
S. F. No. 1820 was read for the second time.
The following House Files were introduced:
Murphy introduced:
H. F. No. 2214, A bill for an act relating to education; providing that high school pupils enrolled in post-secondary courses may participate in high school activities; excluding grades earned in a post-secondary course from a pupil's grade point average and class rank in a secondary school; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 123.3514, subdivision 5; and by adding a subdivision.
The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Education.
Dehler, Tomassoni, Pugh, Koppendrayer and Delmont introduced:
H. F. No. 2215, A bill for an act relating to gambling; authorizing dice games in retail establishments licensed to sell alcoholic beverages under certain circumstances; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, sections 340A.410, subdivision 5; and 609.761, by adding a subdivision.
The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Regulated Industries and Energy.
Tunheim, Bakk, Finseth, Solberg and Daggett introduced:
H. F. No. 2216, A bill for an act relating to private property; providing for the Private Property Protection Act; proposing coding for new law as Minnesota Statutes, chapter 516.
The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Commerce, Tourism and Consumer Affairs.
Kahn, Pugh, Farrell and Tuma introduced:
H. F. No. 2217, A bill for an act relating to mediation; regulating mediation meetings of public bodies; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 471.705, by adding a subdivision.
The bill was read for the first time and referred to the Committee on Governmental Operations.
The following House Advisory was introduced:
Boudreau, Rest, Solberg, Kuisle and Kraus introduced:
H. A. No. 4, A proposal to evaluate the local government effects of electronic voting from remote locations.
The advisory was referred to the Committee on Local Government and Metropolitan Affairs.
The following messages were received from the Senate:
Mr. Speaker:
I hereby announce that the Senate has concurred in and adopted the report of the Conference Committee on:
H. F. No. 753, A bill for an act relating to financial institutions; authorizing facsimile or electronic filings and certifications; regulating the powers and structure of certain institutions; regulating consumer credit; modifying lending authority; regulating fees and charges; making technical and conforming changes; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, sections 46.04, by adding a subdivision; 46.044, by adding a subdivision; 46.046, by adding a subdivision; 46.047, subdivision 2; 46.07, subdivision 2; 46.131, subdivision 2; 47.20, subdivisions 9 and 14; 47.55, subdivision 1; 47.56; 47.59, subdivisions 1 and 12; 47.61, subdivision 3; 48.01, subdivision 2; 48.09, by adding a subdivision; 48.15, subdivision 2; 48.24, subdivision 2, and by adding a subdivision; 48.512, by adding subdivisions; 48.61, subdivision 7, and by adding a subdivision; 49.215, subdivision 3; 49.33; 49.42; 50.245; 51A.38, subdivision 1; 52.04, subdivision 2a, and by adding a subdivision; 52.062, subdivision 1, and by adding a subdivision; 52.063; 52.064, by adding a subdivision; 52.201; 53.04, by adding a subdivision; 53.05; 53.09, subdivision 2a; 55.06, subdivision 1; 56.07; 56.10, subdivision 1; 56.131, subdivisions 1 and 4; 59A.08, subdivision 3, and by adding a subdivision; 59A.11, subdivisions 2 and 3; 62B.04, subdivision 1; 300.20, subdivision 2; 303.25, subdivision 5; 325F.68, subdivision 2; 332.21; 332.23, subdivisions 2 and 5; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 48; repealing Minnesota Statutes 1996, sections 13.99, subdivision 13; 47.29; 47.31; 47.32; 49.47; 49.48; 50.03; 50.23; and 59A.14.
The Senate has repassed said bill in accordance with the recommendation and report of the Conference Committee. Said House File is herewith returned to the House.
Patrick E. Flahaven, Secretary of the Senate
Mr. Speaker:
I hereby announce that the Senate has concurred in and adopted the report of the Conference Committee on:
H. F. No. 1409, A bill for an act relating to agriculture; legislative review of feedlot permit rules; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 116.07, subdivision 7.
The Senate has repassed said bill in accordance with the recommendation and report of the Conference Committee. Said House File is herewith returned to the House.
Patrick E. Flahaven, Secretary of the Senate
Mr. Speaker:
I hereby announce that the Senate has concurred in and adopted the report of the Conference Committee on:
H. F. No. 2147, A bill for an act relating to education; providing for early childhood education, community,
prevention, and self-sufficiency programs; appropriating money; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, sections 12.21,
subdivision 3; 15.53, subdivision 2; 119A.01, subdivision 3; 119A.04, subdivision 6, and by adding a subdivision; 119A.13,
subdivisions 2, 3, and 4; 119A.14; 119A.15, subdivisions 2, 5, and by adding a subdivision; 119A.16; 119A.31,
subdivisions 1 and 2; 119B.01, subdivisions 8, 9, 12, 16, 17, and by adding subdivisions; 119B.02; 119B.03, subdivisions 3,
4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and by adding subdivisions; 119B.04; 119B.05, subdivisions 1, 5, 6, and by adding a subdivision; 119B.07;
119B.08, subdivisions 1 and 3; 119B.09, subdivisions 1, 2, and by adding subdivisions; 119B.10, subdivision 1; 119B.11,
subdivisions 1, 3, and by adding a subdivision; 119B.12; 119B.13, subdivision 1, and by adding subdivisions; 119B.15;
119B.16, subdivision 1; 119B.18, by adding a subdivision; 119B.20, subdivisions 7, 9, and 10; 119B.21, subdivisions 1,
2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 10, and 11; 120.05, subdivision 2; 121.831, subdivisions 3 and 4; 121.8355, subdivision 1; 121.88,
subdivisions 1, 10, and by adding a subdivision; 121.882, subdivisions 2 and 6; 124.17, subdivision 2e; 124.26,
subdivision 2, and by adding a subdivision; 124.2601, subdivisions 3, 4, 5, 6, and by adding a subdivision; 124.261,
subdivision 1; 124.2615, subdivisions 1 and 2; 124.2711, subdivisions 1 and 2a; 124.2713, subdivisions 6 and 8; 124.2716,
subdivision 3; 268.38, by adding a subdivision; 268.53, subdivision 5; 268.55, by adding a subdivision; 268.912; 268.913,
subdivisions 2 and 4; and 268.914, subdivision 1; Laws 1996, chapter 463, section 4, subdivision 2, as amended; proposing
coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 119A; and 119B; repealing Minnesota Statutes 1996, sections 119B.03,
subdivision 7; 119B.05, subdivisions 2 and 3; 119B.11, subdivision 2; 119B.19, subdivision 2; 119B.21, subdivision 7;
121.8355, subdivision 1a; and 268.913, subdivision 5.
The Senate has repassed said bill in accordance with the recommendation and report of the Conference Committee. Said
House File is herewith returned to the House.
Patrick E. Flahaven, Secretary of the Senate
Mr. Speaker:
I hereby announce that the Senate accedes to the request of the House for the appointment of a Conference Committee
on the amendments adopted by the Senate to the following House File:
H. F. No. 244, A bill for an act relating to the environment; modifying requirements relating to individual sewage
treatment systems; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 115.55, subdivisions 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, and by adding a
subdivision.
The Senate has appointed as such committee:
Messrs. Price, Stumpf and Dille.
Said House File is herewith returned to the House.
Patrick E. Flahaven, Secretary of the Senate
Mr. Speaker:
I hereby announce that the Senate accedes to the request of the House for the appointment of a Conference Committee
on the amendments adopted by the Senate to the following House File:
H. F. No. 254, A bill for an act relating to courts; providing for open juvenile court hearings in certain
proceedings; providing certain juvenile records are open to public inspection as provided by the rules of juvenile court;
amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, sections 260.155, subdivision 1; and 260.161, subdivision 2.
The Senate has appointed as such committee:
Mr. Knutson; Ms. Ranum; Mr. Ten Eyck; Ms. Kiscaden and Mr. Cohen.
Said House File is herewith returned to the House.
Patrick E. Flahaven, Secretary of the Senate
Mr. Speaker:
I hereby announce the passage by the Senate of the following House File, herewith returned, as amended by the Senate,
in which amendments the concurrence of the House is respectfully requested:
H. F. No. 892, A bill for an act relating to wages; raising the minimum wage; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996,
section 177.24, subdivision 1.
Patrick E. Flahaven, Secretary of the Senate
On the motion of Marko and on the demand of 10 members, a call of the House was ordered. The following members
answered to their names:
Abrams | Evans | Kalis | Marko | Peterson | Tingelstad |
Anderson, B. | Farrell | Kelso | McCollum | Pugh | Tomassoni |
Anderson, I. | Finseth | Kielkucki | McElroy | Rest | Tompkins |
Bakk | Folliard | Kinkel | McGuire | Reuter | Trimble |
Bettermann | Garcia | Knight | Milbert | Rhodes | Tuma |
Biernat | Goodno | Knoblach | Molnau | Rifenberg | Tunheim |
Bishop | Greenfield | Koppendrayer | Mulder | Rostberg | Van Dellen |
Boudreau | Greiling | Koskinen | Mullery | Rukavina | Vickerman |
Bradley | Gunther | Kraus | Munger | Schumacher | Wagenius |
Broecker | Haas | Krinkie | Murphy | Seagren | Weaver |
Carlson | Harder | Kubly | Ness | Seifert | Wejcman |
Chaudhary | Hasskamp | Kuisle | Nornes | Sekhon | Wenzel |
Clark | Hausman | Larsen | Olson, E. | Skare | Westfall |
Commers | Hilty | Leighton | Olson, M. | Skoglund | Westrom |
Daggett | Holsten | Leppik | Opatz | Slawik | Winter |
Davids | Huntley | Lieder | Orfield | Smith | Wolf |
Dawkins | Jaros | Lindner | Osskopp | Solberg | Workman |
Dehler | Jefferson | Long | Osthoff | Stanek | Spk. Carruthers |
Delmont | Jennings | Luther | Ozment | Stang | |
Dempsey | Johnson, A. | Macklin | Paulsen | Sviggum | |
Dorn | Johnson, R. | Mahon | Pawlenty | Swenson, D. | |
Entenza | Juhnke | Mares | Paymar | Swenson, H. | |
Erhardt | Kahn | Mariani | Pelowski | Sykora | |
Rukavina moved that the House concur in the Senate amendments to H. F. No. 892 and that the bill be repassed as amended by the Senate.
Abrams | Dempsey | Knoblach | Molnau | Rostberg | Vickerman |
Anderson, B. | Erhardt | Koppendrayer | Mulder | Seifert | Weaver |
Bettermann | Finseth | Krinkie | Ness | Stanek | Westfall |
Boudreau | Goodno | Kuisle | Nornes | Stang | Westrom |
Bradley | Gunther | Larsen | Olson, M. | Sviggum | Wolf |
Broecker | Haas | Leppik | Paulsen | Swenson, D. | Workman |
Commers | Harder | Lindner | Pawlenty | Swenson, H. | |
Daggett | Holsten | Macklin | Reuter | Sykora | |
Davids | Kielkucki | Mares | Rhodes | Tingelstad | |
Dehler | Knight | McElroy | Rifenberg | Van Dellen | |
Those who voted in the negative were:
Anderson, I. | Folliard | Juhnke | Mariani | Ozment | Smith |
Bakk | Garcia | Kahn | Marko | Paymar | Solberg |
Biernat | Greenfield | Kalis | McCollum | Pelowski | Tomassoni |
Bishop | Greiling | Kelso | McGuire | Peterson | Tompkins |
Carlson | Hasskamp | Kinkel | Milbert | Pugh | Trimble |
Chaudhary | Hausman | Koskinen | Mullery | Rest | Tuma |
Clark | Hilty | Kraus | Munger | Rukavina | Tunheim |
Dawkins | Huntley | Kubly | Murphy | Schumacher | Wagenius |
Delmont | Jaros | Leighton | Olson, E. | Seagren | Wejcman |
Dorn | Jefferson | Lieder | Opatz | Sekhon | Wenzel |
Entenza | Jennings | Long | Orfield | Skare | Winter |
Evans | Johnson, A. | Luther | Osskopp | Skoglund | Spk. Carruthers |
Farrell | Johnson, R. | Mahon | Osthoff | Slawik | |
The motion did not prevail.
The question recurred on the Rukavina motion and the roll was called. There were 87 yeas and 46 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Journal of the House - 59th Day - Wednesday, May 14, 1997 - Top of Page 4142 |
|||||
Anderson, I. | Farrell | Juhnke | Marko | Pelowski | Tomassoni |
Bakk | Finseth | Kahn | McCollum | Peterson | Tompkins |
Biernat | Folliard | Kalis | McGuire | Pugh | Trimble |
Bishop | Garcia | Kelso | Milbert | Rest | Tuma |
Boudreau | Greenfield | Kinkel | Mullery | Rhodes | Tunheim |
Carlson | Greiling | Knoblach | Munger | Rostberg | Wagenius |
Chaudhary | Hasskamp | Koskinen | Murphy | Rukavina | Wejcman |
Clark | Hausman | Kraus | Olson, E. | Schumacher | Wenzel |
Daggett | Hilty | Kubly | Opatz | Seagren | Westfall |
Dawkins | Huntley | Leighton | Orfield | Sekhon | Westrom |
Delmont | Jaros | Lieder | Osskopp | Skare | Winter |
Dempsey | Jefferson | Long | Osthoff | Skoglund | Spk. Carruthers |
Dorn | Jennings | Luther | Ozment | Slawik | |
Entenza | Johnson, A. | Mahon | Pawlenty | Smith | |
Evans | Johnson, R. | Mariani | Paymar | Solberg | |
Those who voted in the negative were:
Abrams | Erhardt | Koppendrayer | McElroy | Rifenberg | Tingelstad |
Anderson, B. | Goodno | Krinkie | Molnau | Seifert | Van Dellen |
Bettermann | Gunther | Kuisle | Mulder | Stanek | Vickerman |
Bradley | Haas | Larsen | Ness | Stang | Weaver |
Broecker | Harder | Leppik | Nornes | Sviggum | Wolf |
Commers | Holsten | Lindner | Olson, M. | Swenson, D. | Workman |
Davids | Kielkucki | Macklin | Paulsen | Swenson, H. | |
Dehler | Knight | Mares | Reuter | Sykora | |
The motion prevailed.
H. F. No. 892, A bill for an act relating to employment; increasing the minimum wage; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 177.24, subdivision 1.
The bill was read for the third time, as amended by the Senate, and placed upon its repassage.
The question was taken on the repassage of the bill and the roll was called. There were 90 yeas and 43 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Anderson, I. | Farrell | Juhnke | Mariani | Pawlenty | Smith |
Bakk | Finseth | Kahn | Marko | Paymar | Solberg |
Biernat | Folliard | Kalis | McCollum | Pelowski | Tomassoni |
Bishop | Garcia | Kelso | McGuire | Peterson | Tompkins |
Boudreau | Greenfield | Kinkel | Milbert | Pugh | Trimble |
Carlson | Greiling | Knoblach | Mullery | Rest | Tuma |
Chaudhary | Hasskamp | Koskinen | Munger | Rhodes | Tunheim |
Clark | Hausman | Kraus | Murphy | Rostberg | Van Dellen |
Daggett | Hilty | Kubly | Ness | Rukavina | Vickerman |
Dawkins | Huntley | Leighton | Olson, E. | Schumacher | Wagenius |
Delmont | Jaros | Leppik | Opatz | Seagren | Wejcman |
Dempsey | Jefferson | Lieder | Orfield | Sekhon | Wenzel |
Dorn | Jennings | Long | Osskopp | Skare | Westrom |
Entenza | Johnson, A. | Luther | Osthoff | Skoglund | Winter |
Evans | Johnson, R. | Mahon | Ozment | Slawik | Spk. Carruthers |
Those who voted in the negative were:
Abrams | Erhardt | Koppendrayer | Molnau | Stanek | Westfall |
Anderson, B. | Goodno | Krinkie | Mulder | Stang | Wolf |
Bettermann | Gunther | Kuisle | Nornes | Sviggum | Workman |
Bradley | Haas | Larsen | Olson, M. | Swenson, D. | |
Broecker | Harder | Lindner | Paulsen | Swenson, H. | |
Commers | Holsten | Macklin | Reuter | Sykora | |
Journal of the House - 59th Day - Wednesday, May 14, 1997 - Top of Page 4143 |
|||||
Davids | Kielkucki | Mares | Rifenberg | Tingelstad | |
Dehler | Knight | McElroy | Seifert | Weaver | |
The bill was repassed, as amended by the Senate, and its title agreed to.
Winter moved that the call of the House be suspended. The motion prevailed and it was so ordered.
Mr. Speaker:
I hereby announce that the Senate has concurred in and adopted the report of the Conference Committee on:
S. F. No. 97.
The Senate has repassed said bill in accordance with the recommendation and report of the Conference Committee. Said Senate File is herewith transmitted to the House.
Patrick E. Flahaven, Secretary of the Senate
A bill for an act relating to health; providing for the isolation and detention of persons with active tuberculosis who pose an endangerment to the public health; establishing standards and procedures for isolation and detention; requiring reporting by licensed health professionals; modifying tuberculosis screening requirements; appropriating money; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 144.445, subdivisions 1 and 3; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 144.
May 8, 1997
The Honorable Allan H. Spear
President of the Senate
The Honorable Phil Carruthers
Speaker of the House of Representatives
We, the undersigned conferees for S. F. No. 97, report that we have agreed upon the items in dispute and recommend as follows:
That the House recede from its amendment and that S. F. No. 97 be further amended as follows:
Page 8, line 18, before the period, insert "health if the person is reportable under subdivision 3, clause (3), (4), or (5)"
Page 23, delete section 16
Renumber the sections in sequence and correct the internal references
Amend the title as follows:
Abrams | Evans | Kahn | Mares | Paymar | Swenson, D. |
Anderson, B. | Farrell | Kalis | Mariani | Pelowski | Swenson, H. |
Anderson, I. | Finseth | Kelso | McCollum | Peterson | Sykora |
Bakk | Folliard | Kielkucki | McElroy | Pugh | Tingelstad |
Bettermann | Garcia | Kinkel | McGuire | Rest | Tomassoni |
Biernat | Goodno | Knight | Milbert | Reuter | Tompkins |
Boudreau | Greenfield | Knoblach | Molnau | Rhodes | Trimble |
Bradley | Greiling | Koppendrayer | Mulder | Rifenberg | Tuma |
Broecker | Gunther | Koskinen | Mullery | Rostberg | Tunheim |
Carlson | Haas | Kraus | Munger | Rukavina | Van Dellen |
Chaudhary | Harder | Krinkie | Murphy | Schumacher | Vickerman |
Clark | Hasskamp | Kubly | Ness | Seagren | Wagenius |
Commers | Hausman | Kuisle | Nornes | Seifert | Weaver |
Daggett | Hilty | Larsen | Olson, E. | Sekhon | Wejcman |
Davids | Holsten | Leighton | Olson, M. | Skare | Wenzel |
Dawkins | Huntley | Leppik | Opatz | Skoglund | Westfall |
Dehler | Jaros | Lieder | Orfield | Slawik | Westrom |
Delmont | Jefferson | Lindner | Osskopp | Smith | Winter |
Dempsey | Jennings | Long | Osthoff | Solberg | Wolf |
Dorn | Johnson, A. | Luther | Ozment | Stanek | Workman |
Entenza | Johnson, R. | Macklin | Paulsen | Stang | Spk. Carruthers |
Erhardt | Juhnke | Mahon | Pawlenty | Sviggum | |
The bill was repassed, as amended by Conference, and its title agreed to.
Mr. Speaker:
I hereby announce that the Senate refuses to concur in the House amendments to the following Senate File:
S. F. No. 1208, A bill for an act relating to
MinnesotaCare; eliminating the health care commission; modifying the regional
coordinating boards; eliminating integrated service networks; modifying the
health technology advisory committee; expanding the eligibility of the
MinnesotaCare program; modifying general assistance medical care; modifying the
enforcement mechanisms for the provider tax
pass-through; modifying mandatory Medicare assignment; making technical, policy,
and administrative changes and connections to MinnesotaCare taxes; providing
grants for MinnesotaCare outreach; regulating community purchasing arrangements;
requiring certain studies; appropriating money; amending Minnesota Statutes
1996, sections 60A.15, subdivision 1; 60A.951, subdivision 5; 62A.61; 62J.017;
62J.06; 62J.07, subdivisions 1 and 3; 62J.09, subdivision 1; 62J.15, subdivision
1; 62J.152, subdivisions 1, 2, 4, 5, and by adding a subdivision; 62J.17,
subdivision 6a; 62J.22; 62J.25; 62J.2914, subdivision 1; 62J.2915; 62J.2916,
subdivision 1; 62J.2917, subdivision 2; 62J.2921, subdivision 2; 62J.451,
subdivision 6b; 62M.02, subdivision 21; 62N.01, subdivision 1; 62N.22; 62N.23;
62N.25, subdivision 5; 62N.26; 62N.40; 62Q.01, subdivisions 3, 4, and 5; 62Q.03,
subdivision 5a; 62Q.106; 62Q.19, subdivision 1; 62Q.33, subdivision 2; 62Q.45,
subdivision 2; 136A.1355; 144.147, subdivisions 1, 2, 3, and 4; 144.1484,
subdivision 1; 256.01, subdivision 2; 256.045, subdivision 3a; 256.9352,
subdivision 3; 256.9353, subdivisions 1, 3, and 7; 256.9354, subdivisions 4, 5,
6, 7, and by adding a subdivision; 256.9355, subdivisions 1, 4, and by adding a
subdivision; 256.9357, subdivision 3; 256.9358, subdivision 4; 256.9359,
subdivision 2; 256.9363, subdivisions 1 and 5; 256.9657, subdivision 3;
256B.0625, subdivision 13; 256D.03, subdivision 3; 295.50, subdivisions 3, 4, 6,
7, 9b, 13, 14, and by adding a subdivision; 295.51, subdivision 1; 295.52,
subdivisions 1, 1a, 2, 4, and by adding subdivisions; 295.53, subdivisions 1, 3,
and 4; 295.54, subdivisions 1 and 2; 295.55, subdivision 2; and 295.582;
proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 16A; 144; and 256;
proposing coding for new law as Minnesota Statutes, chapter 62S; repealing
Minnesota Statutes 1996, sections 62E.11, subdivision 12; 62J.04, subdivisions 4
and 7; 62J.05; 62J.051; 62J.09, subdivision 3a; 62J.37; 62N.01, subdivision 2;
62N.02, subdivisions 2, 3, 4b, 4c, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, and 12; 62N.03; 62N.04;
62N.05; 62N.06; 62N.065; 62N.071; 62N.072; 62N.073; 62N.074; 62N.076; 62N.077;
62N.078; 62N.10; 62N.11; 62N.12; 62N.13; 62N.14; 62N.15; 62N.17; 62N.18; 62N.24;
62N.38; 62Q.165, subdivision 3; 62Q.25; 62Q.29; 62Q.41; 147.01, subdivision 6;
295.52, subdivision 1b; and 295.53, subdivision 5; Laws 1993, chapter 247,
article 4, section 8; Laws 1994, chapter 625, article 5, section 5, as amended;
Laws 1995, chapter 96, section 2; and Laws 1995, First Special Session chapter
3, article 13, section 2.
The Senate respectfully requests that a Conference
Committee be appointed thereon. The Senate has appointed as such committee:
Mses. Berglin; Piper; Mr. Sams; Ms. Kiscaden and Mrs.
Lourey.
Said Senate File is herewith transmitted to the House
with the request that the House appoint a like committee.
Patrick E. Flahaven, Secretary of the Senate
Greenfield moved that the House accede to the request of
the Senate and that the Speaker appoint a Conference Committee of 5 members of
the House to meet with a like committee appointed by the Senate on the
disagreeing votes of the two houses on S. F. No. 1208. The motion prevailed.
Mr. Speaker:
I hereby announce the passage by the Senate of the
following House File, herewith returned, as amended by the Senate, in which
amendments the concurrence of the House is respectfully requested:
H. F. No. 1755, A bill for an act relating to local
government; providing for procedures between the county housing and
redevelopment authority and certain municipalities and municipal authorities;
amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 383B.77, subdivision 2.
Patrick E. Flahaven, Secretary of the Senate
Jefferson moved that the House concur in the Senate
amendments to H. F. No. 1755 and that the bill be repassed as amended by the
Senate. The motion prevailed.
H. F. No. 1755, A bill for an act relating to local
government; providing for procedures between the county housing and
redevelopment authority and certain municipalities and municipal authorities;
expanding authority of regional rail authorities; providing for contamination
cleanup and rail improvement; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, sections
383B.77, subdivision 2; and 398A.04, subdivision 1.
The bill was read for the third time, as amended by the
Senate, and placed upon its repassage.
The question was taken on the repassage of the bill and
the roll was called. There were 129 yeas and 0 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
CONCURRENCE AND REPASSAGE
Abrams | Farrell | Kelso | Marko | Pelowski | Sykora |
Anderson, B. | Finseth | Kielkucki | McCollum | Peterson | Tingelstad |
Anderson, I. | Folliard | Kinkel | McElroy | Pugh | Tomassoni |
Bettermann | Garcia | Knight | McGuire | Rest | Tompkins |
Biernat | Goodno | Knoblach | Milbert | Reuter | Trimble |
Bishop | Greenfield | Koppendrayer | Molnau | Rhodes | Tuma |
Boudreau | Greiling | Koskinen | Mulder | Rifenberg | Tunheim |
Bradley | Gunther | Kraus | Mullery | Rostberg | Van Dellen |
Broecker | Haas | Krinkie | Munger | Schumacher | Vickerman |
Carlson | Harder | Kubly | Murphy | Seagren | Wagenius |
Chaudhary | Hasskamp | Kuisle | Ness | Seifert | Weaver |
Clark | Hausman | Larsen | Nornes | Sekhon | Wejcman |
Commers | Hilty | Leighton | Olson, E. | Skare | Wenzel |
Daggett | Holsten | Leppik | Olson, M. | Skoglund | Westfall |
Davids | Huntley | Lieder | Opatz | Slawik | Westrom |
Dawkins | Jefferson | Lindner | Orfield | Smith | Winter |
Dehler | Jennings | Long | Osskopp | Solberg | Wolf |
Dempsey | Johnson, A. | Luther | Osthoff | Stanek | Workman |
Dorn | Johnson, R. | Macklin | Ozment | Stang | Spk. Carruthers |
Entenza | Juhnke | Mahon | Paulsen | Sviggum | |
Erhardt | Kahn | Mares | Pawlenty | Swenson, D. | |
Evans | Kalis | Mariani | Paymar | Swenson, H. | |
The bill was repassed, as amended by the Senate, and its title agreed to.
Farrell was excused between the hours of 11:30 a.m. and 2:00 p.m.
Mr. Speaker:
I hereby announce that the Senate has concurred in and adopted the report of the Conference Committee on:
S. F. No. 78.
The Senate has repassed said bill in accordance with the recommendation and report of the Conference Committee. Said Senate File is herewith transmitted to the House.
Patrick E. Flahaven, Secretary of the Senate
A bill for an act relating to elections; changing
certain absentee ballot provisions; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, sections
203B.02, subdivision 1; 203B.03, subdivision 1; 203B.04, subdivision 1; 203B.06,
subdivision 3; 203B.07, subdivision 2; 203B.11, by adding a subdivision; and
203B.12, subdivision 2; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes,
chapter 203B.
May 12, 1997
The Honorable Allan H. Spear
President of the Senate
The Honorable Phil Carruthers
Speaker of the House of Representatives
We, the undersigned conferees for S. F. No. 78, report
that we have agreed upon the items in dispute and recommend as follows:
That the House recede from its amendments and that S. F.
No. 78 be further amended as follows:
Delete everything after the enacting clause and insert:
"Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 203B.02,
subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. [ Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 203B.03,
subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. [VIOLATION.] No individual shall
intentionally:
(a) make or sign any false certificate required by this
chapter;
(b) make any false or untrue statement in any
application for absentee ballots;
(c) apply for absentee ballots more than once in any
election with the intent to cast an illegal ballot;
(d) exhibit a ballot marked by that individual to any
other individual;
(e) do any act in violation of the provisions of this
chapter for the purpose of casting an illegal vote in any precinct or for the
purpose of aiding another to cast an illegal vote; (f) use information from absentee ballot materials or
records for purposes unrelated to elections, political activities, or law
enforcement;
(g) provide assistance to an
absentee voter except in the manner provided by section 204C.15, subdivision 1;
or
(h) accept any payment of money
or other thing of monetary value for delivery, in person or by mail, of any
absentee ballot application or voted ballots to the county auditor, municipal
clerk, or school district clerk.
Before inspecting information from absentee ballot
materials or records, an individual shall provide identification to the public
official having custody of the material or information.
Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 203B.04,
subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. [APPLICATION PROCEDURES.] Except as
otherwise allowed by subdivision 2, an application for absentee ballots for any
election may be submitted at any time not less than one day before the day of
that election. An application submitted pursuant to this subdivision shall be in
writing and shall be submitted to:
(a) the county auditor of the county where the applicant
maintains residence; or
(b) the municipal clerk of the municipality, or school
district if applicable, where the applicant maintains residence.
An application shall be accepted if it is signed and
dated by the applicant, contains the applicant's name
and residence and mailing addresses, and states Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 203B.06,
subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3. [DELIVERY OF BALLOTS.] If an application for
absentee ballots is accepted at a time when absentee ballots are not yet
available for distribution, the county auditor, or municipal clerk accepting the
application shall file it and as soon as absentee ballots are available for
distribution shall mail them to the address specified in the application. If an
application for absentee ballots is accepted when absentee ballots are available
for distribution, the county auditor or municipal clerk accepting the
application shall promptly:
(a) mail the ballots to the voter whose signature
appears on the application if the application is submitted by mail; (b) deliver the absentee ballots directly to the voter
if the application is submitted in person; or
(c) transmit a facsimile of the
ballots to the voter in the manner provided in section 203B.082.
If an application does not indicate the election for
which absentee ballots are sought, the county auditor or municipal clerk shall
mail or deliver only the ballots for the next election occurring after receipt
of the application. Only one set of ballots may be mailed to an applicant for
any election.
This subdivision does not apply to applications for
absentee ballots received pursuant to sections 203B.04, subdivision 2, and
203B.11.
Sec. 5. [203B.082] [USE OF FACSIMILE BALLOTS.]
Subdivision 1.
[ELIGIBILITY.] An eligible voter who either becomes a
patient in a health care facility during the seven days immediately before an
election or is residing outside the United States may vote by an electronically
transmitted facsimile ballot as provided in this section.
Subd. 2. [APPLICATION.] Upon receipt of a properly completed application, the
county auditor may send the voter the appropriate ballots and a ballot
transmission form using an electronic facsimile device. The ballot transmission
form must provide space for the voter's name, address, signature, date of birth,
date on which the ballots were transmitted by the voter, and a statement
acknowledging that the voter's ballots will not be secret. The ballot
transmission form for a patient in a health care facility must include the
certificate of eligibility required by section 203B.07, subdivision 2. The
ballot transmission form for a person residing outside the United States must
contain the affidavit required by section 203B.21, subdivision 3. The secretary
of state shall prepare samples of the ballot transmission form for use by the
county auditor.
Subd. 3. [RETURN.] The voter may return the voted ballots to the county
auditor using an electronic facsimile device. If an electronic facsimile device
is used, the voter must also complete and return the ballot transmission form.
Upon receipt of an electronically transmitted ballot, the county auditor shall
immediately compare the information provided on the absentee ballot application
with the information provided on the ballot transmission form. No record of the
votes cast by the voter
may be made. After the information on the ballot
transmission form has been verified, the ballots must be sealed in a ballot
secrecy envelope. The ballot transmission form must be attached to the ballot
secrecy envelope and placed with the other absentee ballots for the precinct in
which the voter resides. The county auditor shall certify that the ballots were
properly enclosed in the ballot secrecy envelope, that no record of the votes
cast on the ballots was made, and that the auditor will not disclose for whom
the voter has voted. Subd. 4. [REJECTION.] If the county auditor cannot verify that the ballots were
transmitted by the same person who submitted the absentee ballot application,
the ballots must be rejected and no votes on the ballots may be counted.
Sec. 6. [203B.145] [ACCESS TO ABSENTEE BALLOT
MATERIALS.]
Public inspection of absentee
ballot applications, absentee ballot return envelopes, other materials related
to absentee voting, and any list that includes information from these materials
must occur in the manner provided in the rules of the secretary of state."
Delete the title and insert:
"A bill for an act relating to elections; changing
certain absentee ballot provisions; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, sections
203B.02, subdivision 1; 203B.03, subdivision 1; 203B.04, subdivision 1; and
203B.06, subdivision 3; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes,
chapter 203B."
We request adoption of this report and repassage of the
bill.
Senate Conferees: John Marty, Linda Scheid and Dennis R.
Frederickson.
House Conferees: Tom Osthoff, Betty McCollum and Barb
Vickerman.
Osthoff moved that the report of the Conference
Committee on S. F. No. 78 be adopted and that the bill be repassed as amended by
the Conference Committee. The motion prevailed.
S. F. No. 78, A bill for an act relating to elections;
changing certain absentee ballot provisions; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996,
sections 203B.02, subdivision 1; 203B.03, subdivision 1; 203B.04, subdivision 1;
203B.06, subdivision 3; 203B.07, subdivision 2; 203B.11, by adding a
subdivision; and 203B.12, subdivision 2; proposing coding for new law in
Minnesota Statutes, chapter 203B.
The bill was read for the third time, as amended by
Conference, and placed upon its repassage.
The question was taken on the repassage of the bill and
the roll was called. There were 69 yeas and 63 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
UNABLE TO GO TO
POLLING PLACE ELIGIBILITY FOR ABSENTEE VOTING.]
Any eligible voter who reasonably expects to be unable to go to the polling
place on election day in the precinct where the individual maintains residence
because of absence from the precinct, illness,
disability, religious discipline, observance of a religious holiday, or service
as an election judge in another precinct may vote by absentee ballot as
provided in sections 203B.04 to 203B.15. The voter must
indicate on the application for absentee ballots the reason that the voter will
be unable to vote in person at the polling place on election day.
or
that
the applicant is eligible to vote by absentee ballot for one of the reasons
specified in section 203B.02 the reason that the
voter will be unable to vote in person at the polling place on election day.
An application may be submitted to the county auditor or municipal clerk by an
electronic facsimile device, at the discretion of the auditor or clerk.
or
Anderson, I. | Folliard | Johnson, R. | Luther | Paymar | Tomassoni |
Bakk | Garcia | Juhnke | Mahon | Pelowski | Trimble |
Biernat | Greenfield | Kahn | Mariani | Peterson | Tunheim |
Carlson | Greiling | Kalis | McCollum | Pugh | Vickerman |
Chaudhary | Hasskamp | Kelso | McGuire | Rest | Wagenius |
Clark | Hausman | Kinkel | Milbert | Rukavina | Wejcman |
Davids | Hilty | Koskinen | Mullery | Schumacher | Westfall |
Dawkins | Huntley | Kraus | Munger | Sekhon | Winter |
Delmont | Jaros | Kubly | Murphy | Skare | Spk. Carruthers |
Dorn | Jefferson | Leighton | Olson, E. | Skoglund | |
Entenza | Jennings | Lieder | Opatz | Slawik | |
Evans | Johnson, A. | Long | Osthoff | Solberg | |
Abrams | Erhardt | Krinkie | Ness | Rostberg | Tompkins |
Anderson, B. | Finseth | Kuisle | Nornes | Seagren | Tuma |
Bettermann | Goodno | Larsen | Olson, M. | Seifert | Van Dellen |
Bishop | Gunther | Leppik | Orfield | Smith | Weaver |
Boudreau | Haas | Lindner | Osskopp | Stanek | Wenzel |
Bradley | Harder | Macklin | Ozment | Stang | Westrom |
Broecker | Holsten | Mares | Paulsen | Sviggum | Wolf |
Commers | Kielkucki | Marko | Pawlenty | Swenson, D. | Workman |
Daggett | Knight | McElroy | Reuter | Swenson, H. | |
Dehler | Knoblach | Molnau | Rhodes | Sykora | |
Dempsey | Koppendrayer | Mulder | Rifenberg | Tingelstad | |
The bill was repassed, as amended by Conference, and its title agreed to.
Mr. Speaker:
I hereby announce the passage by the Senate of the following Senate File, herewith transmitted:
S. F. No. 1006.
Patrick E. Flahaven, Secretary of the Senate
S. F. No. 1006, A bill for an act relating to firefighters; authorizing certain background investigations; requiring disclosures of certain employment information; providing civil and criminal penalties; providing employers immunity for certain disclosures; modifying employment provisions for Rochester firefighters; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 604A.31, by adding a subdivision; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 299F.
The bill was read for the first time.
McGuire moved that S. F. No. 1006 and H. F. No. 1283, now on General Orders, be referred to the Chief Clerk for comparison. The motion prevailed.
Pursuant to rule 1.10, Solberg requested immediate consideration of H. F. No. 1579.
H. F. No. 1579 was reported to the House.
Sviggum moved to amend H. F. No. 1579, the third engrossment, as follows:
Page 1, after line 5, insert:
"Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 97A.037, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. [INTERFERENCE WITH TAKING WILD ANIMALS
PROHIBITED.] A person who has the intent to prevent or preparing to take a wild animal. "Preparing to take a
wild animal" includes travel, camping, and other acts that occur on land or
water where the affected person has the right or privilege to take lawfully a
wild animal."
Page 1, line 6, delete "Section 1." and insert "Sec. 2."
Amend the title as follows:
Page 1, line 2, after the semicolon, insert "modifying
provisions prohibiting hunter, trapper, and angler harassment;"
Page 1, line 4, delete "section" and insert "sections
97A.037, subdivision 1; and"
The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.
H. F. No. 1579, A bill for an act relating to game and
fish; modifying certain license issuing fees; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996,
section 97A.485, subdivision 6.
The bill was read for the third time, as amended, and
placed upon its final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of the bill and
the roll was called. There were 101 yeas and 30 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
,
or disrupt, or dissuade the
taking of another person from taking or preparing to
take a wild animal or enjoyment of the out-of-doors may must not disturb or
interfere with another that person who if that person is lawfully taking a wild animal
Abrams | Folliard | Kahn | Mares | Peterson | Sykora |
Bettermann | Garcia | Kalis | McCollum | Pugh | Tingelstad |
Bishop | Goodno | Kelso | McElroy | Rest | Trimble |
Boudreau | Greenfield | Kinkel | McGuire | Reuter | Tuma |
Bradley | Greiling | Koppendrayer | Milbert | Rhodes | Van Dellen |
Broecker | Gunther | Koskinen | Molnau | Rifenberg | Vickerman |
Carlson | Haas | Kraus | Mulder | Rostberg | Wagenius |
Daggett | Harder | Krinkie | Munger | Schumacher | Weaver |
Davids | Hasskamp | Kubly | Ness | Seagren | Wejcman |
Dawkins | Hausman | Kuisle | Nornes | Sekhon | Wenzel |
Dehler | Hilty | Larsen | Olson, E. | Slawik | Westfall |
Delmont | Holsten | Leppik | Olson, M. | Smith | Westrom |
Dempsey | Huntley | Lieder | Orfield | Solberg | Winter |
Dorn | Jaros | Lindner | Osskopp | Stang | Wolf |
Entenza | Jennings | Long | Osthoff | Sviggum | Workman |
Erhardt | Johnson, R. | Luther | Ozment | Swenson, D. | Spk. Carruthers |
Finseth | Juhnke | Macklin | Pelowski | Swenson, H. | |
Those who voted in the negative were:
Anderson, B. | Commers | Knight | Marko | Pawlenty | Skoglund |
Anderson, I. | Evans | Knoblach | Mullery | Paymar | Stanek |
Bakk | Jefferson | Leighton | Murphy | Rukavina | Tomassoni |
Biernat | Johnson, A. | Mahon | Opatz | Seifert | Tompkins |
Chaudhary | Kielkucki | Mariani | Paulsen | Skare | Tunheim |
The bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.
The Speaker announced the appointment of the following members of the House to a Conference Committee on S. F. No. 1208:
Greenfield, Huntley, Dorn, Koskinen and Goodno.
S. F. No. 73, A bill for an act relating to elections; providing a change of address system for registered voters; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 201.13, subdivision 3.
The bill was read for the third time and placed upon its final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of the bill and the roll was called. There were 69 yeas and 62 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Anderson, I. | Garcia | Juhnke | Mariani | Paymar | Solberg |
Bakk | Greenfield | Kahn | Marko | Pelowski | Tomassoni |
Biernat | Greiling | Kalis | McCollum | Peterson | Trimble |
Carlson | Hasskamp | Kelso | McGuire | Pugh | Tunheim |
Chaudhary | Hausman | Kinkel | Milbert | Rest | Wagenius |
Clark | Hilty | Koskinen | Mullery | Rhodes | Wejcman |
Dawkins | Huntley | Kubly | Munger | Rukavina | Wenzel |
Delmont | Jaros | Leighton | Murphy | Schumacher | Winter |
Dorn | Jefferson | Lieder | Olson, E. | Sekhon | Spk. Carruthers |
Entenza | Jennings | Long | Opatz | Skare | |
Evans | Johnson, A. | Luther | Orfield | Skoglund | |
Folliard | Johnson, R. | Mahon | Osthoff | Slawik | |
Those who voted in the negative were:
Abrams | Dempsey | Koppendrayer | Mulder | Seagren | Van Dellen |
Anderson, B. | Erhardt | Kraus | Ness | Seifert | Vickerman |
Bettermann | Finseth | Krinkie | Nornes | Smith | Weaver |
Bishop | Goodno | Kuisle | Olson, M. | Stanek | Westfall |
Boudreau | Gunther | Larsen | Osskopp | Stang | Westrom |
Bradley | Haas | Leppik | Ozment | Sviggum | Wolf |
Broecker | Harder | Lindner | Paulsen | Swenson, D. | Workman |
Commers | Holsten | Macklin | Pawlenty | Swenson, H. | |
Daggett | Kielkucki | Mares | Reuter | Sykora | |
Davids | Knight | McElroy | Rifenberg | Tompkins | |
Dehler | Knoblach | Molnau | Rostberg | Tuma | |
The bill was passed and its title agreed to.
S. F. No. 1170, A bill for an act relating to elections; precinct caucus; authorizing certain minors to be elected a delegate or officer at the precinct caucus; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 202A.16, subdivision 1.
The bill was read for the third time and placed upon its
final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of the bill and
the roll was called. There were 68 yeas and 64 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Anderson, I. | Folliard | Juhnke | Mahon | Paymar | Tomassoni |
Bakk | Garcia | Kahn | Mariani | Pelowski | Trimble |
Biernat | Greenfield | Kalis | Marko | Peterson | Tunheim |
Broecker | Greiling | Kelso | McCollum | Pugh | Wagenius |
Carlson | Hasskamp | Kinkel | McGuire | Rest | Wejcman |
Chaudhary | Hausman | Koskinen | Milbert | Rukavina | Wenzel |
Clark | Hilty | Kubly | Mullery | Schumacher | Winter |
Dawkins | Huntley | Larsen | Munger | Sekhon | Spk. Carruthers |
Delmont | Jaros | Leighton | Murphy | Skare | |
Dorn | Jefferson | Lieder | Olson, E. | Skoglund | |
Entenza | Jennings | Long | Opatz | Slawik | |
Evans | Johnson, R. | Luther | Orfield | Solberg | |
Those who voted in the negative were:
Abrams | Erhardt | Koppendrayer | Ness | Rostberg | Tompkins |
Anderson, B. | Finseth | Kraus | Nornes | Seagren | Tuma |
Bettermann | Goodno | Krinkie | Olson, M. | Seifert | Van Dellen |
Bishop | Gunther | Kuisle | Osskopp | Smith | Vickerman |
Boudreau | Haas | Leppik | Osthoff | Stanek | Weaver |
Bradley | Harder | Lindner | Ozment | Stang | Westfall |
Commers | Holsten | Macklin | Paulsen | Sviggum | Westrom |
Daggett | Johnson, A. | Mares | Pawlenty | Swenson, D. | Wolf |
Davids | Kielkucki | McElroy | Reuter | Swenson, H. | Workman |
Dehler | Knight | Molnau | Rhodes | Sykora | |
Dempsey | Knoblach | Mulder | Rifenberg | Tingelstad | |
The bill was passed and its title agreed to.
S. F. No. 296 was reported to the House.
Finseth moved to amend S. F. No. 296, the unofficial engrossment, as follows:
Page 3, after line 28, insert:
"Sec. 7. [CANCELLATION OF GENERAL ELECTION AND ANNUAL MEETING; INDEPENDENT SCHOOL DISTRICT NO. 595, EAST GRAND FORKS.]
The May 20, 1997, general election and the July 1997 annual meeting in independent school district No. 595, East Grand Forks, are canceled. All filings for that election are void and all filing fees shall be returned to affected candidates. The general election shall be held on November 4, 1997, in compliance with Minnesota Statutes, chapter 205A. The annual meeting of the board shall be held on the first Monday of January 1998, or as soon thereafter as practicable. The terms of existing members whose terms would otherwise expire on July 1, 1997, shall be lengthened to expire on January 1, 1998, and the terms of existing officers shall be lengthened to the January 1998 annual meeting and until their successors are elected and qualify.
Sec. 8. [EFFECTIVE DATE.]
Section 7 is effective for independent school district No. 595, East Grand Forks, the day after its compliance with the requirements of Minnesota Statutes, section 645.021, subdivision 3."
Renumber the sections in sequence and correct internal references
Amend the title accordingly
Abrams | Erhardt | Kahn | Mares | Pawlenty | Sviggum |
Anderson, B. | Evans | Kalis | Mariani | Paymar | Swenson, D. |
Anderson, I. | Finseth | Kelso | Marko | Pelowski | Swenson, H. |
Bakk | Folliard | Kielkucki | McCollum | Peterson | Sykora |
Bettermann | Garcia | Kinkel | McElroy | Pugh | Tingelstad |
Biernat | Goodno | Knight | McGuire | Rest | Tomassoni |
Bishop | Greenfield | Knoblach | Milbert | Reuter | Tompkins |
Boudreau | Greiling | Koppendrayer | Molnau | Rhodes | Trimble |
Bradley | Gunther | Koskinen | Mulder | Rifenberg | Tuma |
Broecker | Haas | Kraus | Mullery | Rostberg | Tunheim |
Carlson | Harder | Krinkie | Munger | Rukavina | Van Dellen |
Chaudhary | Hasskamp | Kubly | Murphy | Schumacher | Vickerman |
Clark | Hausman | Kuisle | Ness | Seagren | Wagenius |
Commers | Hilty | Larsen | Nornes | Seifert | Weaver |
Daggett | Holsten | Leighton | Olson, E. | Sekhon | Wejcman |
Davids | Huntley | Leppik | Olson, M. | Skare | Wenzel |
Dawkins | Jaros | Lieder | Opatz | Skoglund | Westfall |
Dehler | Jefferson | Lindner | Orfield | Slawik | Westrom |
Delmont | Jennings | Long | Osskopp | Smith | Winter |
Dempsey | Johnson, A. | Luther | Osthoff | Solberg | Wolf |
Dorn | Johnson, R. | Macklin | Ozment | Stanek | Workman |
Entenza | Juhnke | Mahon | Paulsen | Stang | Spk. Carruthers |
The bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.
S. F. No. 242 was reported to the House.
Sviggum withdrew his pending amendment offered on Monday, April 14, 1997, to S. F. No. 242.
S. F. No. 242, A bill for an act relating to human rights; suspending a deadline during mediation in certain cases; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 363.06, by adding a subdivision.
The bill was read for the third time and placed upon its final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of the bill and the roll was called. There were 130 yeas and 0 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Abrams | Evans | Kalis | Mariani | Pelowski | Swenson, H. |
Anderson, B. | Finseth | Kelso | McCollum | Peterson | Sykora |
Journal of the House - 59th Day - Wednesday, May 14, 1997 - Top of Page 4155 |
|||||
Anderson, I. | Folliard | Kielkucki | McElroy | Pugh | Tingelstad |
Bakk | Garcia | Kinkel | McGuire | Rest | Tomassoni |
Bettermann | Goodno | Knight | Milbert | Reuter | Tompkins |
Biernat | Greenfield | Knoblach | Molnau | Rhodes | Trimble |
Bishop | Greiling | Koppendrayer | Mulder | Rifenberg | Tuma |
Boudreau | Gunther | Koskinen | Mullery | Rostberg | Tunheim |
Bradley | Haas | Kraus | Munger | Rukavina | Van Dellen |
Broecker | Harder | Krinkie | Murphy | Schumacher | Vickerman |
Carlson | Hasskamp | Kubly | Ness | Seagren | Wagenius |
Chaudhary | Hausman | Kuisle | Nornes | Seifert | Weaver |
Clark | Hilty | Larsen | Olson, E. | Sekhon | Wejcman |
Commers | Holsten | Leighton | Olson, M. | Skare | Wenzel |
Daggett | Huntley | Leppik | Opatz | Skoglund | Westfall |
Davids | Jaros | Lieder | Orfield | Slawik | Westrom |
Dehler | Jefferson | Lindner | Osskopp | Smith | Winter |
Delmont | Jennings | Long | Osthoff | Solberg | Wolf |
Dempsey | Johnson, A. | Luther | Ozment | Stanek | Workman |
Dorn | Johnson, R. | Macklin | Paulsen | Stang | Spk. Carruthers |
Entenza | Juhnke | Mahon | Pawlenty | Sviggum | |
Erhardt | Kahn | Mares | Paymar | Swenson, D. | |
The bill was passed and its title agreed to.
S. F. No. 323, A bill for an act relating to human rights; prohibiting reprisals by any individual; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 363.03, subdivision 7.
The bill was read for the third time and placed upon its final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of the bill and the roll was called. There were 126 yeas and 6 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Abrams | Evans | Kahn | Marko | Pelowski | Swenson, D. |
Anderson, I. | Finseth | Kalis | McCollum | Peterson | Swenson, H. |
Bakk | Folliard | Kelso | McElroy | Pugh | Sykora |
Bettermann | Garcia | Kielkucki | McGuire | Rest | Tingelstad |
Biernat | Goodno | Kinkel | Milbert | Reuter | Tomassoni |
Bishop | Greenfield | Knoblach | Molnau | Rhodes | Tompkins |
Boudreau | Greiling | Koppendrayer | Mulder | Rifenberg | Trimble |
Broecker | Gunther | Koskinen | Mullery | Rostberg | Tuma |
Carlson | Haas | Kraus | Munger | Rukavina | Tunheim |
Chaudhary | Harder | Kubly | Murphy | Schumacher | Van Dellen |
Clark | Hasskamp | Kuisle | Ness | Seagren | Vickerman |
Commers | Hausman | Larsen | Nornes | Seifert | Wagenius |
Daggett | Hilty | Leighton | Olson, E. | Sekhon | Weaver |
Davids | Holsten | Leppik | Opatz | Skare | Wejcman |
Dawkins | Huntley | Lieder | Orfield | Skoglund | Wenzel |
Dehler | Jaros | Long | Osskopp | Slawik | Westfall |
Delmont | Jefferson | Luther | Osthoff | Smith | Westrom |
Dempsey | Jennings | Macklin | Ozment | Solberg | Winter |
Dorn | Johnson, A. | Mahon | Paulsen | Stanek | Wolf |
Entenza | Johnson, R. | Mares | Pawlenty | Stang | Workman |
Erhardt | Juhnke | Mariani | Paymar | Sviggum | Spk. Carruthers |
Those who voted in the negative were:
Anderson, B. | Bradley | Knight | Krinkie | Lindner | Olson, M. |
Abrams | Finseth | Kelso | McCollum | Peterson | Tingelstad |
Anderson, B. | Folliard | Kielkucki | McElroy | Pugh | Tomassoni |
Anderson, I. | Garcia | Kinkel | McGuire | Rest | Tompkins |
Bakk | Goodno | Knight | Milbert | Reuter | Trimble |
Bettermann | Greenfield | Knoblach | Molnau | Rhodes | Tuma |
Bishop | Greiling | Koppendrayer | Mulder | Rifenberg | Tunheim |
Boudreau | Gunther | Koskinen | Mullery | Rostberg | Van Dellen |
Bradley | Haas | Kraus | Munger | Rukavina | Vickerman |
Broecker | Harder | Krinkie | Murphy | Schumacher | Wagenius |
Carlson | Hasskamp | Kubly | Ness | Seagren | Weaver |
Chaudhary | Hausman | Kuisle | Nornes | Seifert | Wejcman |
Clark | Hilty | Larsen | Olson, E. | Sekhon | Wenzel |
Commers | Holsten | Leighton | Olson, M. | Skare | Westfall |
Daggett | Huntley | Leppik | Opatz | Skoglund | Westrom |
Davids | Jaros | Lieder | Orfield | Slawik | Winter |
Dawkins | Jefferson | Lindner | Osskopp | Solberg | Wolf |
Dehler | Jennings | Long | Osthoff | Stanek | Workman |
Delmont | Johnson, A. | Luther | Ozment | Stang | Spk. Carruthers |
Dempsey | Johnson, R. | Mahon | Paulsen | Sviggum | |
Dorn | Juhnke | Mares | Pawlenty | Swenson, D. | |
Erhardt | Kahn | Mariani | Paymar | Swenson, H. | |
Evans | Kalis | Marko | Pelowski | Sykora | |
Those who voted in the negative were:
Biernat | Entenza | Macklin | Smith |
The bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.
LEGISLATIVE ADMINISTRATION
Winter, from the Committee on Rules and Legislative Administration, pursuant to rule 1.09, designated the following bills as Special Orders to be acted upon today:
H. F. No. 354; and S. F. Nos. 1697, 1266, 298, 1419, 1715, 501, 1328, 739, 234, 349 and 122.
H. F. No. 354 was reported to the House.
Huntley moved that H. F. No. 354 be returned to General Orders. The motion prevailed.
S. F. No. 1697, A bill for an act relating to public finance; updating and clarifying bond allocation provisions; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, sections 474A.03, subdivisions 1 and 2a; 474A.04, subdivision 1a; 474A.047, subdivision 1; 474A.061, subdivision 2b; 474A.091, subdivisions 3 and 6; and 474A.131, subdivisions 1 and 1a.
The bill was read for the third time and placed upon its final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of the bill and the roll was called. There were 127 yeas and 0 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Abrams | Folliard | Kielkucki | McElroy | Rest | Tomassoni |
Anderson, B. | Garcia | Kinkel | McGuire | Reuter | Tompkins |
Anderson, I. | Goodno | Knight | Milbert | Rhodes | Trimble |
Bettermann | Greenfield | Knoblach | Molnau | Rifenberg | Tuma |
Biernat | Greiling | Koppendrayer | Mulder | Rostberg | Tunheim |
Bishop | Gunther | Koskinen | Mullery | Rukavina | Van Dellen |
Boudreau | Haas | Kraus | Munger | Schumacher | Vickerman |
Bradley | Harder | Krinkie | Murphy | Seagren | Wagenius |
Broecker | Hasskamp | Kubly | Ness | Seifert | Weaver |
Carlson | Hausman | Kuisle | Nornes | Sekhon | Wejcman |
Chaudhary | Hilty | Larsen | Olson, E. | Skare | Wenzel |
Clark | Holsten | Leighton | Olson, M. | Skoglund | Westfall |
Commers | Huntley | Leppik | Opatz | Slawik | Westrom |
Daggett | Jaros | Lieder | Orfield | Smith | Winter |
Davids | Jefferson | Lindner | Osskopp | Solberg | Wolf |
Dehler | Jennings | Luther | Ozment | Stanek | Workman |
Delmont | Johnson, A. | Macklin | Paulsen | Stang | Spk. Carruthers |
Dempsey | Johnson, R. | Mahon | Pawlenty | Sviggum | |
Dorn | Juhnke | Mares | Paymar | Swenson, D. | |
Erhardt | Kahn | Mariani | Pelowski | Swenson, H. | |
Evans | Kalis | Marko | Peterson | Sykora | |
Finseth | Kelso | McCollum | Pugh | Tingelstad | |
The bill was passed and its title agreed to.
S. F. No. 1266, A bill for an act relating to local government; authorizing town electors to require the removal of snow or ice from town roads in certain circumstances; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 366.
The bill was read for the third time and placed upon its final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of the bill and the roll was called. There were 129 yeas and 1 nay as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Abrams | Finseth | Kelso | Marko | Pelowski | Sykora |
Anderson, B. | Folliard | Kielkucki | McCollum | Peterson | Tingelstad |
Anderson, I. | Garcia | Kinkel | McElroy | Pugh | Tomassoni |
Bettermann | Goodno | Knight | McGuire | Rest | Tompkins |
Biernat | Greenfield | Knoblach | Milbert | Reuter | Trimble |
Bishop | Greiling | Koppendrayer | Molnau | Rhodes | Tuma |
Boudreau | Gunther | Koskinen | Mulder | Rifenberg | Tunheim |
Bradley | Haas | Kraus | Mullery | Rostberg | Van Dellen |
Broecker | Harder | Krinkie | Munger | Rukavina | Vickerman |
Carlson | Hasskamp | Kubly | Murphy | Schumacher | Wagenius |
Chaudhary | Hausman | Kuisle | Ness | Seagren | Weaver |
Clark | Hilty | Larsen | Nornes | Seifert | Wejcman |
Commers | Holsten | Leighton | Olson, E. | Sekhon | Wenzel |
Daggett | Huntley | Leppik | Olson, M. | Skare | Westfall |
Davids | Jaros | Lieder | Opatz | Skoglund | Westrom |
Dawkins | Jefferson | Lindner | Orfield | Slawik | Winter |
Dehler | Jennings | Long | Osskopp | Solberg | Wolf |
Delmont | Johnson, A. | Luther | Osthoff | Stanek | Workman |
Journal of the House - 59th Day - Wednesday, May 14, 1997 - Top of Page 4159 |
|||||
Dempsey | Johnson, R. | Macklin | Ozment | Stang | Spk. Carruthers |
Dorn | Juhnke | Mahon | Paulsen | Sviggum | |
Erhardt | Kahn | Mares | Pawlenty | Swenson, D. | |
Evans | Kalis | Mariani | Paymar | Swenson, H. | |
Those who voted in the negative were:
Smith
The bill was passed and its title agreed to.
S. F. No. 298 was reported to the House.
Leighton moved to amend S. F. No. 298 as follows:
Page 48, after line 16, insert:
"Sec. 65. Laws 1997, chapter 22, section 6, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3. [RELATIONSHIP TO PERSON SERVED.] (a) Sections 319B.01 to 319B.12 do not alter any law applicable to the relationship between a person furnishing professional services and a person receiving the professional services, including liability arising out of the professional services and the confidential relationship and privilege of communications between the person furnishing professional services and the person receiving the professional services.
(b) Sections 319B.01 to 319B.12 do not alter any law applicable to the relationship between a professional firm furnishing professional services and a person receiving the professional services, including liability arising out of the professional services and the confidential relationship and privilege of communications between the professional firm furnishing professional services and the person receiving the professional services.
(c) Whether a Minnesota
professional firm's owners and persons who control, manage, or act for the firm
are personally liable for the firm's debts and obligations is determined
according to the firm's generally applicable governing law."
Page 48, after line 24, insert:
Abrams | Erhardt | Kahn | Mares | Paymar | Swenson, D. |
Anderson, B. | Evans | Kalis | Marko | Pelowski | Swenson, H. |
Anderson, I. | Finseth | Kelso | McCollum | Peterson | Sykora |
Bakk | Folliard | Kielkucki | McElroy | Pugh | Tingelstad |
Bettermann | Garcia | Kinkel | McGuire | Rest | Tomassoni |
Biernat | Goodno | Knight | Milbert | Reuter | Tompkins |
Bishop | Greenfield | Knoblach | Molnau | Rhodes | Trimble |
Boudreau | Greiling | Koppendrayer | Mulder | Rifenberg | Tuma |
Bradley | Gunther | Koskinen | Mullery | Rostberg | Tunheim |
Broecker | Haas | Kraus | Munger | Rukavina | Van Dellen |
Carlson | Harder | Krinkie | Murphy | Schumacher | Vickerman |
Chaudhary | Hasskamp | Kubly | Ness | Seagren | Wagenius |
Clark | Hausman | Kuisle | Nornes | Seifert | Weaver |
Commers | Hilty | Larsen | Olson, E. | Sekhon | Wejcman |
Daggett | Holsten | Leighton | Olson, M. | Skare | Wenzel |
Davids | Huntley | Leppik | Opatz | Skoglund | Westfall |
Dawkins | Jaros | Lieder | Orfield | Slawik | Westrom |
Dehler | Jefferson | Lindner | Osskopp | Smith | Winter |
Delmont | Jennings | Long | Osthoff | Solberg | Wolf |
Dempsey | Johnson, A. | Luther | Ozment | Stanek | Workman |
Dorn | Johnson, R. | Macklin | Paulsen | Stang | Spk. Carruthers |
Entenza | Juhnke | Mahon | Pawlenty | Sviggum | |
The bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.
Abrams | Erhardt | Kahn | Mares | Pawlenty | Sviggum |
Anderson, B. | Evans | Kalis | Mariani | Paymar | Swenson, D. |
Anderson, I. | Finseth | Kelso | Marko | Pelowski | Swenson, H. |
Bakk | Folliard | Kielkucki | McCollum | Peterson | Sykora |
Bettermann | Garcia | Kinkel | McElroy | Pugh | Tingelstad |
Biernat | Goodno | Knight | McGuire | Rest | Tomassoni |
Bishop | Greenfield | Knoblach | Milbert | Reuter | Tompkins |
Boudreau | Greiling | Koppendrayer | Molnau | Rhodes | Trimble |
Bradley | Gunther | Koskinen | Mulder | Rifenberg | Tuma |
Broecker | Haas | Kraus | Mullery | Rostberg | Tunheim |
Carlson | Harder | Krinkie | Munger | Rukavina | Van Dellen |
Chaudhary | Hasskamp | Kubly | Murphy | Schumacher | Vickerman |
Clark | Hausman | Kuisle | Ness | Seagren | Wagenius |
Commers | Hilty | Larsen | Nornes | Seifert | Weaver |
Daggett | Holsten | Leighton | Olson, E. | Sekhon | Wejcman |
Davids | Huntley | Leppik | Olson, M. | Skare | Wenzel |
Dawkins | Jaros | Lieder | Opatz | Skoglund | Westfall |
Dehler | Jefferson | Lindner | Orfield | Slawik | Westrom |
Delmont | Jennings | Long | Osskopp | Smith | Winter |
Dempsey | Johnson, A. | Luther | Osthoff | Solberg | Wolf |
Dorn | Johnson, R. | Macklin | Ozment | Stanek | Workman |
Entenza | Juhnke | Mahon | Paulsen | Stang | Spk. Carruthers |
The bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.
S. F. No. 1715 was reported to the House.
Davids moved to amend S. F. No. 1715 as follows:
Delete everything after the enacting clause and insert the following language of H. F. No. 1605, the first engrossment:
Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62E.02, subdivision 13, is amended to read:
Subd. 13. [ELIGIBLE PERSON.] "Eligible person" means an individual who is currently and has been a resident of Minnesota for the six months immediately preceding the date of receipt by the association or its writing carrier of a completed certificate of eligibility and who meets the enrollment requirements of section 62E.14. For purposes of eligibility under section 62E.14, subdivision 4c, paragraph (b), this definition is modified as provided in that paragraph.
Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62E.14, subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3. [PREEXISTING CONDITIONS.] No person who obtains
coverage pursuant to this section shall be covered for any preexisting condition
during the first six months of coverage under the state plan if the person was
diagnosed or treated for that condition during the 90 days immediately preceding
the filing of an application except as provided under subdivisions 4, 4a, 4b, 4c, 4d, 5, Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62E.14,
subdivision 4c, is amended to read:
Subd. 4c. [WAIVER OF PREEXISTING CONDITIONS FOR PERSONS
WHOSE COVERAGE IS TERMINATED OR WHO EXCEED THE MAXIMUM LIFETIME BENEFIT.] (a) A Minnesota resident may enroll in the
comprehensive health plan with a waiver of the preexisting condition limitation
described in subdivision 3 if that person applies for coverage within 90 days of
termination of prior coverage and if the termination is for reasons other than
fraud or nonpayment of premiums.
For purposes of this Coverage in the comprehensive health plan is effective
on the date of termination of prior coverage. The availability of conversion
rights does not affect a person's rights under this This section does not apply to prior coverage provided
under policies designed primarily to provide coverage payable on a per diem,
fixed indemnity, or nonexpense incurred basis, or policies providing only
accident coverage.
(b) An eligible individual, as
defined in the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of
1996, section 111 (to be codified as United States Code, chapter 42, section
2741(b)) may enroll in the comprehensive health insurance plan with a waiver of
the preexisting condition limitation described in subdivision 3 and a waiver of
the evidence of rejection or similar events described in subdivision 1, clause
(c). The eligible individual must apply for enrollment under this paragraph
within 63 days of termination of prior coverage, and coverage under the
comprehensive health insurance plan is effective as of the date of receipt of
the complete application. The six month durational residency requirement
provided in section 62E.02, subdivision 13, does not apply with respect to
eligibility for enrollment under this paragraph, but the applicant must be a
Minnesota resident as of the date of application. A person's eligibility to
enroll under this paragraph does not affect the person's eligibility to enroll
under any other provision.
Sec. 4. [EFFECTIVE DATE.]
Sections 1 to 3 are effective
January 1, 1998.
Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62L.02,
subdivision 9, is amended to read:
Subd. 9. [CONTINUOUS COVERAGE.] "Continuous coverage"
means the maintenance of continuous and uninterrupted qualifying coverage. An
individual is considered to have maintained continuous coverage if the
individual requests enrollment in qualifying coverage within Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62L.02,
subdivision 11, is amended to read:
Subd. 11. [DEPENDENT.] "Dependent" means an eligible
employee's spouse, unmarried child who is under the age of 19 years, unmarried
child under the age of 25 years who is a full-time student as defined in section
62A.301, dependent child of any age who is handicapped and who meets the
eligibility criteria in section 62A.14, subdivision 2, or any other person whom
state or federal law requires to be treated as a dependent for purposes of
health plans. For the purpose of this definition, a child includes a child for
whom the employee or the employee's spouse has been appointed legal guardian and an adoptive child as provided in section 62A.27.
Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62L.02, is
amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 13b. [ENROLLMENT
DATE.] "Enrollment date" means, with respect to a
covered individual, the date of enrollment of the individual in the health
benefit plan or, if earlier, the first day of the waiting period for the
individual's enrollment.
Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62L.02,
subdivision 15, is amended to read:
Subd. 15. [HEALTH BENEFIT PLAN.] "Health benefit plan"
means a policy, contract, or certificate offered, sold, issued, or renewed by a
health carrier to a small employer for the coverage of medical and hospital
benefits. Health benefit plan includes a small employer plan. Health benefit
plan does not include coverage, including any
combination of the following coverages, that is:
(1) limited to disability or income protection coverage;
(2) automobile medical payment coverage;
(3) liability insurance or
supplemental to liability insurance;
(4) designed solely to provide coverage for a specified disease or illness or to
provide payments on a per diem, fixed indemnity, or non-expense-incurred
basis, if offered as independent, noncoordinated
coverage;
(5) credit accident and health insurance as defined in
section 62B.02;
(6) designed solely to provide dental or vision care;
(7) blanket accident and sickness insurance as defined
in section 62A.11;
(8) accident-only coverage;
(9) a long-term care policy as defined in section
62A.46;
(10) (11) workers' compensation insurance; or
(12) For the purpose of this chapter, a health benefit plan
issued to eligible employees of a small employer who meets the participation
requirements of section 62L.03, subdivision 3, is considered to have been issued
to a small employer. A health benefit plan issued on behalf of a health carrier
is considered to be issued by the health carrier.
Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62L.02,
subdivision 19, is amended to read:
Subd. 19. [LATE ENTRANT.] "Late entrant" means an
eligible employee or dependent who requests enrollment in a health benefit plan
of a small employer following the initial enrollment period applicable to the
employee or dependent under the terms of the health benefit plan, provided that
the initial enrollment period must be a period of at least 30 days. However, an
eligible employee or dependent must not be considered a late entrant if:
(1) the individual was covered under qualifying coverage
at the time the individual was eligible to enroll in the health benefit plan,
declined enrollment on that basis, and presents to the health carrier a
certificate of termination of the qualifying coverage, due to loss of
eligibility for that coverage, or proof of the
termination of employer contributions toward that coverage, provided that
the individual maintains continuous coverage in the number of hours of employment. (2) the individual has lost coverage under another group
health plan due to the expiration of benefits available under the Consolidated
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1985, Public Law Number 99-272, as amended,
and any state continuation laws applicable to the employer or health carrier,
provided that the individual maintains continuous coverage and requests enrollment within 30 days of the loss of
coverage;
(3) the individual is a new spouse of an eligible
employee, provided that enrollment is requested within 30 days of becoming
legally married;
(4) the individual is a new dependent child of an
eligible employee, provided that enrollment is requested within 30 days of
becoming a dependent;
(5) the individual is employed by an employer that
offers multiple health benefit plans and the individual elects a different plan
during an open enrollment period; or
(6) a court has ordered that coverage be provided for a
former spouse or dependent child under a covered employee's health benefit plan
and request for enrollment is made within 30 days after issuance of the court
order.
Sec. 6. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62L.02,
subdivision 23, is amended to read:
Subd. 23. [PREEXISTING CONDITION.] "Preexisting
condition" means, with respect to coverage, a
condition Sec. 7. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62L.02,
subdivision 24, is amended to read:
Subd. 24. [QUALIFYING COVERAGE.] "Qualifying coverage"
means health benefits or health coverage provided under:
(1) a health benefit plan,
as defined in this section, but without regard to
whether it is issued to a small employer and including blanket accident and
sickness insurance, other than accident-only coverage, as defined in section
62A.11;
(2) part A or part B of
Medicare;
(3) medical assistance under chapter 256B;
(4) general assistance medical care under chapter 256D;
(5) MCHA;
(6) a self-insured health plan;
(7) the MinnesotaCare program established under section
256.9352 (8) a plan provided under section 43A.316, 43A.317, or
471.617;
(9) the Civilian Health and Medical Program of the
Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS) or other coverage provided
under United States Code, title 10, chapter 55;
(10) coverage provided by a health care network
cooperative under chapter 62R or by a health provider cooperative under section
62R.17; (11) a medical care program of
the Indian Health Service or of a tribal organization;
(12) the federal Employees
Health Benefits Plan, or other coverage provided under United States Code, title
5, chapter 89;
(13) a health benefit plan under
section 5(e) of the Peace Corps Act, codified as United States Code, title 32,
section 2504(e); or
(14) a plan similar to any
of the above plans provided in this state or in another state as determined by
the commissioner.
Sec. 8. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62L.02,
subdivision 26, is amended to read:
Subd. 26. [SMALL EMPLOYER.] (a) "Small employer" means, with respect to a calendar year and a plan year, a
person, firm, corporation, partnership, association, or other entity actively
engaged in business, including a political subdivision of the state, that (b) Where an association, as defined in section 62L.045,
comprised of employers contracts with a health carrier to provide coverage to
its members who are small employers, the association and health benefit plans it
provides to small employers, are subject to section 62L.045, with respect to
small employers in the association, even though the association also provides
coverage to its members that do not qualify as small employers.
(c) If an employer has employees covered under a trust
specified in a collective bargaining agreement under the federal
Labor-Management Relations Act of 1947, United States Code, title 29, section
141, et seq., as amended, or employees whose health coverage is determined by a
collective bargaining agreement and, as a result of the collective bargaining
agreement, is purchased separately from the health plan provided to other
employees, those employees are excluded in determining whether the employer
qualifies as a small employer. Those employees are considered to be a separate
small employer if they constitute a group that would qualify as a small employer
in the absence of the employees who are not subject to the collective bargaining
agreement.
Sec. 9. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62L.02, is
amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 29. [WAITING PERIOD.]
"Waiting period" means, with respect to an individual
who is a potential enrollee under a health benefit plan, the period that must
pass with respect to the individual before the individual is eligible, under the
employer's eligibility requirements, for coverage under the health benefit
plan.
Sec. 10. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62L.03,
subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. [GUARANTEED ISSUE AND REISSUE.] (a) Every health carrier shall, as a condition of
authority to transact business in this state in the small employer market,
affirmatively market, offer, sell, issue, and renew any of its health benefit
plans, on a guaranteed issue basis, to any small employer that meets the
participation and contribution requirements of subdivision 3, as provided in
this chapter.
(b) Notwithstanding paragraph
(a), a health carrier may, at the time of coverage renewal, modify the health
coverage for a product offered in the small employer market if the modification
is consistent with state law, approved by the commissioner, and effective on a
uniform basis for all small employers purchasing that product other than through
a qualified association in compliance with section 62L.045, subdivision 2.
(c) Every health carrier
participating in the small employer market shall make available both of the
plans described in section 62L.05 to small employers and shall fully comply with
the underwriting and the rate restrictions specified in this chapter for all
health benefit plans issued to small employers.
(d) A health carrier may
cease to transact business in the small employer market as provided under
section 62L.09.
Sec. 11. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62L.03,
subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. [EXCEPTIONS.] (a) No health maintenance
organization is required to offer coverage or accept applications under
subdivision 1 in the case of the following:
(1) with respect to a small employer, where the (2) with respect to an employee, when the employee does
not work or reside within the health maintenance organization's approved service
areas.
(b) A health carrier participating in the small employer
market shall not be required to offer coverage or accept applications pursuant
to subdivision 1 where the commissioner finds that the acceptance of an
application or applications would place the health carrier participating in the
small employer market in a financially impaired condition, provided, however,
that a health carrier participating in the small employer market that has not
offered coverage or accepted applications pursuant to this paragraph shall not
offer coverage or accept applications for any health benefit plan until 180 days
following a determination by the commissioner that the health carrier is not
financially impaired and that offering coverage or accepting applications under
subdivision 1 would not cause the health carrier to become financially impaired.
Sec. 12. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62L.03,
subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3. [MINIMUM PARTICIPATION AND CONTRIBUTION.] (a) A
small employer that has at least 75 percent of its eligible employees who have
not waived coverage participating in a health benefit plan and that contributes
at least 50 percent toward the cost of coverage of each eligible employee must
be guaranteed coverage on a guaranteed issue basis from any health carrier
participating in the small employer market. The participation level of eligible
employees must be determined at the initial offering of coverage and at the
renewal date of coverage. A health carrier must not increase the participation
requirements applicable to a small employer at any time after the small employer
has been accepted for coverage. For the purposes of this subdivision, waiver of
coverage includes only waivers due to: (1) coverage under another group health
plan; (2) coverage under Medicare Parts A and B; (3) coverage under MCHA
permitted under section 62E.141; or (4) coverage under medical assistance under
chapter 256B or general assistance medical care under chapter 256D.
(b) If a small employer does not satisfy the
contribution or participation requirements under this subdivision, a health
carrier may voluntarily issue or renew individual health plans, or a health
benefit plan which must fully comply with this chapter. A health carrier that
provides a health benefit plan to a small employer that does not meet the
contribution or participation requirements of this subdivision must maintain
this information in its files for audit by the commissioner. A health carrier
may not offer an individual health plan, purchased through an arrangement
between the employer and the health carrier, to any employee unless the health
carrier also offers the individual health plan, on a guaranteed issue basis, to
all other employees of the same employer.
(c) Nothing in this section obligates a health carrier
to issue coverage to a small employer that currently offers coverage through a
health benefit plan from another health carrier, unless the new coverage will
replace the existing coverage and not serve as one of two or more health benefit
plans offered by the employer. This paragraph does not
apply if the small employer will meet the required participation level with
respect to the new coverage.
Sec. 13. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62L.03,
subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4. [UNDERWRITING RESTRICTIONS.] (a) Health carriers may apply underwriting restrictions
to coverage for health benefit plans for small employers, including any
preexisting condition limitations, only as expressly permitted under this
chapter. For purposes of this section, "underwriting restrictions" means any
refusal of the health carrier to issue or renew coverage, any premium rate
higher than the lowest rate charged by the health carrier for the same coverage,
any preexisting condition limitation, preexisting condition exclusion, or any
exclusionary rider.
(b) Health carriers may
collect information relating to the case characteristics and demographic
composition of small employers, as well as health status and health history
information about employees, and dependents of employees, of small employers.
(c) Except as otherwise
authorized for late entrants, preexisting conditions may be excluded by a health
carrier for a period not to exceed 12 months from the (d) Health carriers shall not
use pregnancy as a preexisting condition under this chapter.
Sec. 14. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62L.03,
subdivision 5, is amended to read:
Subd. 5. [CANCELLATIONS AND FAILURES TO RENEW.] (a) No
health carrier shall cancel, decline to issue, or fail to renew a health benefit
plan as a result of the claim experience or health status of the persons covered
or to be covered by the health benefit plan. For
purposes of this subdivision, a failure to renew does not include a uniform
modification of coverage at time of renewal, as described in subdivision 1.
(b) A health carrier may cancel or fail to renew a
health benefit plan:
(1) for nonpayment of the required premium;
(2) for fraud or misrepresentation by the small
employer (3) if the employer fails to comply with the minimum
contribution percentage required under subdivision 3; or
(4) for any other reasons or grounds expressly permitted
by the respective licensing laws and regulations governing a health carrier,
including, but not limited to, service area restrictions imposed on health
maintenance organizations under section 62D.03, subdivision 4, paragraph (m), to
the extent that these grounds are not expressly inconsistent with this chapter.
(c) A health carrier may fail to renew a health benefit
plan:
(1) if eligible employee participation during the
preceding calendar year declines to less than 75 percent, subject to the waiver
of coverage provision in subdivision 3;
(2) if the health carrier ceases to do business in the
small employer market under section 62L.09; or
(3) if a failure to renew is based upon the health
carrier's decision to discontinue the health benefit plan form previously issued
to the small employer, but only if the health carrier permits each small
employer covered under the prior form to switch to its choice of any other
health benefit plan offered by the health carrier, without any underwriting
restrictions that would not have been permitted for renewal purposes.
(d) A health carrier need not renew a health benefit
plan, and shall not renew a small employer plan, if an employer ceases to
qualify as a small employer as defined in section 62L.02. If a health benefit
plan, other than a small employer plan, provides terms of renewal that do not
exclude an employer that is no longer a small employer, the health benefit plan
may be renewed according to its own terms. If a health carrier issues or renews
a health plan to an employer that is no longer a small employer, without
interruption of coverage, the health plan is subject to section 60A.082. Sec. 15. [EFFECTIVE DATE.]
Sections 1 to 14 are effective
July 1, 1997, and apply to coverage issued or renewed on or after that date.
Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62Q.18,
subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. [DEFINITION.] For purposes of this
section,
(1) "continuous coverage" has the meaning given in
section 62L.02, subdivision 9;
(2) "guaranteed issue" means:
(i) for individual health plans, that a health plan
company shall not decline an application by an individual for any individual
health plan offered by that health plan company, including coverage for a
dependent of the individual to whom the health plan has been or would be issued;
and
(ii) for group health plans, that a health plan company
shall not decline an application by a group for any group health plan offered by
that health plan company and shall not decline to cover under the group health
plan any person eligible for coverage under the group's eligibility
requirements, including persons who become eligible after initial issuance of
the group health plan; (3) "large employer" means an
entity that would be a small employer, as defined in section 62L.02, subdivision
26, except that the entity has more than 50 current employees, based upon the
method provided in that subdivision for determining the number of current
employees;
(4) "preexisting condition" has
the meaning given in section 62L.02, subdivision 23; and
Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62Q.18,
subdivision 7, is amended to read:
Subd. 7. [PORTABILITY OF COVERAGE.] Effective July 1,
1994, no health plan company shall offer, sell, issue, or renew any group health
plan that does not, with respect to individuals who maintain continuous coverage
and who qualify under the group's eligibility requirements:
(1) make coverage available on a guaranteed issue basis;
(2) give full credit for previous continuous coverage
against any applicable preexisting condition limitation or preexisting condition
exclusion (3) with respect to a group
health plan offered, sold, issued, or renewed to a large employer, impose
preexisting condition limitations or preexisting condition exclusions except to
the extent that would be permitted under chapter 62L if the group sponsor were a
small employer as defined in section 62L.02, subdivision 26.
To the extent that this subdivision conflicts with
chapter 62L, chapter 62L governs, regardless of whether the group sponsor is a
small employer as defined in section 62L.02, except that for group health plans
issued to groups that are not small employers, this subdivision's requirement
that the individual have maintained continuous coverage applies. An individual
who has maintained continuous coverage, but would be considered a late entrant
under chapter 62L, may be treated as a late entrant in the same manner under
this subdivision as permitted under chapter 62L.
Sec. 3. [62Q.185] [GUARANTEED RENEWABILITY; LARGE
EMPLOYER GROUP HEALTH COVERAGE.]
(a) No health plan company, as
defined in section 62Q.01, subdivision 4, shall refuse to renew a health benefit
plan, as defined in section 62L.02, subdivision 15, but issued to a large
employer, as defined in section 62Q.18, subdivision 1.
(b) This section does not
require renewal if:
(1) the large employer has
failed to pay premiums or contributions as required under the terms of the
health benefit plan, or the health plan company has not received timely premium
payments unless the late payments were received within a grace period provided
under state law;
(2) the large employer has
performed an act or practice that constitutes fraud or misrepresentation of
material fact under the terms of the health benefit plan;
(3) the large employer has
failed to comply with a material plan provision relating to employer
contribution or group participation rules not prohibited by state law;
(4) the health plan company is
ceasing to offer coverage in the large employer market in this state in
compliance with United States Code, title 42, section 2712(c), and applicable
state law;
(5) in the case of a health
maintenance organization, there is no longer any enrollee in the large
employer's health benefit plan who lives, resides, or works in the approved
service area; or
(6) in the case of a health
benefit plan made available to large employers only through one or more bona
fide associations, the membership of the large employer in the association
ceases, but only if such coverage is terminated uniformly without regard to any
health-related factor relating to any covered individual.
(c) This section does not
prohibit a health plan company from modifying the premium rate or from modifying
the coverage for purposes of renewal.
Sec. 4. [EFFECTIVE DATE.]
Sections 1 to 3 are effective
July 1, 1997, and apply to health benefit plans offered, sold, issued, or
renewed on or after that date.
Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62D.12,
subdivision 1a, is amended to read:
Subd. 1a. [SWING-OUT PRODUCTS.] Notwithstanding
subdivision 1, nothing in sections 62A.049, 62A.60, and 72A.201, subdivision 4a,
applies to a commercial health policy issued under this chapter as a companion
to a health maintenance contract. The commissioner has
approval authority with respect to the commercial health policy.
Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 62H.01, is
amended to read:
62H.01 [JOINT SELF-INSURANCE EMPLOYEE HEALTH PLAN.]
Any two or more employers, excluding the state and its
political subdivisions as described in section 471.617, subdivision 1, who are
authorized to transact business in Minnesota may jointly self-insure employee
health, dental, short-term disability benefits, or other benefits permitted
under the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974, United States Code,
title 29, sections 1001 et seq. Joint plans must have a minimum of 100 covered
employees and meet all conditions and terms of sections 62H.01 to 62H.08. Joint
plans covering employers not resident in Minnesota must meet the requirements of
sections 62H.01 to 62H.08 as if the portion of the plan covering Minnesota
resident employees was treated as a separate plan. A plan may cover employees
resident in other states only if the plan complies with the applicable laws of
that state.
A multiple employer welfare arrangement as defined in
United States Code, title 29, section 1002(40)(a), is subject to this chapter to
the extent authorized by the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974,
United States Code, title 29, sections 1001 et seq. The
commissioner of commerce may, on behalf of the state, enter into an agreement
with the United States Secretary of Labor for delegation to the state of some or
all of the secretary's enforcement authority with respect to multiple employer
welfare arrangements, as described in United States Code, title 29, section
1136, subsection (c).
Sec. 3. [62Q.021] [FEDERAL ACT; COMPLIANCE REQUIRED.]
Each health plan company shall
comply with the federal Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of
1996, to the extent that it imposes a requirement that applies in this state and
that is not also required by the laws of this state. This section does not
require compliance with any provision of the federal act prior to the effective
date provided for that provision in the federal act. The commissioner shall
enforce this section.
Sec. 4. [62Q.181] [WRITTEN CERTIFICATION OF COVERAGE.]
A health plan company shall
provide the written certifications of coverage required under United States
Code, title 42, sections 300gg and 300gg-43, as amended through November 1996.
This section applies only to coverage that is subject to regulation under state
law and only to the extent that the certification of coverage is required under
federal law. The commissioner shall enforce this section.
Sec. 5. [EFFECTIVE DATE.]
and 6, and 7 and section 62E.18.
subdivision paragraph,
termination of prior coverage includes exceeding the maximum lifetime benefit of
existing coverage.
subdivision paragraph.
30 63 days of termination
of qualifying coverage.
issued as a supplement to
Medicare, as defined in sections 62A.31 to 62A.44, or policies, contracts, or
certificates that supplement Medicare issued by health maintenance organizations
or those policies, contracts, or certificates governed by section 1833 or 1876
of the federal Social Security Act, United States Code, title 42, section 1395,
et seq., as amended Medicare-related coverage as
defined in section 62Q.01, subdivision 6;
issued solely as a
companion to a health maintenance contract as described in section 62D.12,
subdivision 1a, so long as the health maintenance contract meets the definition
of a health benefit plan limited to care provided at
on-site medical clinics operated by an employer for the benefit of the
employer's employees and their dependents, in connection with which the employer
does not transfer risk.
. and requests enrollment within 30 days of termination of
qualifying coverage or termination of the employer's contribution toward that
coverage. For purposes of this clause, loss of eligibility includes loss of
eligibility as a result of legal separation, divorce, death, termination of
employment, or reduction
manifesting in a manner that causes an
ordinarily prudent person to seek medical advice, diagnosis, care, or treatment
or present before the individual's enrollment date
for the coverage, for which medical advice, diagnosis, care, or treatment
was recommended or received during the six months immediately preceding the effective date of coverage, or a pregnancy existing as of
the effective date of coverage of a health benefit plan enrollment date.
, when the plan includes inpatient hospital
services as provided in section 256.9353;
or
, on at least 50 percent of its working days during the
preceding 12 months, employed an average of no
fewer than two nor more than 29, or after June 30, 1995,
more than 49, 50 current employees, the majority of whom were employed in this state. If an
employer has only two eligible employees and one is the spouse, child, sibling,
parent, or grandparent of the other, the employer must be a Minnesota domiciled
employer and have paid social security or self-employment tax on behalf of both
eligible employees on business days during the
preceding calendar year and that employs at least two current employees on the
first day of the plan year. If an employer has only one eligible employee
who has not waived coverage, the sale of a health plan to or for that eligible
employee is not a sale to a small employer and is not subject to this chapter
and may be treated as the sale of an individual health plan. A small employer
plan may be offered through a domiciled association to self-employed individuals
and small employers who are members of the association, even if the
self-employed individual or small employer has fewer than two current employees.
Entities that are eligible to file a combined tax return
for purposes of state tax laws treated as a single
employer under subsection (b), (c), (m), or (o) of section 414 of the federal
Internal Revenue Code are considered a single employer for purposes of
determining the number of current employees. Small employer status must be
determined on an annual basis as of the renewal date of the health benefit plan.
The provisions of this chapter continue to apply to an employer who no longer
meets the requirements of this definition until the annual renewal date of the
employer's health benefit plan. If an employer was not
in existence throughout the preceding calendar year, the determination of
whether the employer is a small employer is based upon the average number of
current employees that it is reasonably expected that the employer will employ
on business days in the current calendar year. For purposes of this definition,
the term employer includes any predecessor of the employer. An employer that has
more than 50 current employees but has 50 or fewer employees, as "employee" is
defined under section 3(6) of the federal Employee Retirement Income Security
Act of 1974, is a small employer under this subdivision.
This requirement Paragraph (a) does not apply to a health benefit plan
designed for a small employer to comply with a collective bargaining agreement,
provided that the health benefit plan otherwise complies with this chapter and
is not offered to other small employers, except for other small employers that
need it for the same reason. This paragraph applies only
with respect to collective bargaining agreements entered into prior to August
21, 1996, and only with respect to plan years beginning before the later of July
1, 1997, or the date upon which the last of the collective bargaining agreements
relating to the plan terminates determined without regard to any extension
agreed to after August 21, 1996.
worksite of the employees of the small employer is not physically located does
not have eligible employees who work or reside in the health maintenance
organization's approved service areas; or
effective enrollment date
of coverage of an eligible employee or dependent,
but exclusionary riders must not be used. When
calculating a preexisting condition limitation, a health carrier shall credit
the time period an eligible employee or dependent was previously covered by
qualifying coverage, provided that the individual maintains continuous
coverage. Late entrants may be subject to a preexisting condition limitation
not to exceed 18 months from the effective enrollment date of coverage
of the late entrant, but must not be subject to any exclusionary rider or
preexisting condition exclusion. When calculating any
length of preexisting condition limitation, a health carrier shall credit the
time period an eligible employee or dependent was previously covered by
qualifying coverage, provided that the individual maintains continuous
coverage. The credit must be given for all qualifying coverage with respect
to all preexisting conditions, regardless of whether the conditions were
preexisting with respect to any previous qualifying coverage. Section 60A.082,
relating to replacement of group coverage, and the rules adopted under that
section apply to this chapter, and this chapter's requirements are in addition
to the requirements of that section and the rules adopted under it. A health
carrier shall, at the time of first issuance or renewal of a health benefit plan
on or after July 1, 1993, credit against any preexisting condition limitation or
exclusion permitted under this section, the time period prior to July 1, 1993,
during which an eligible employee or dependent was covered by qualifying
coverage, if the person has maintained continuous coverage.
, or, with respect to coverage of an individual
eligible employee or dependent, fraud or misrepresentation by the eligible
employee or dependent, with respect to eligibility for coverage or any other
material fact;
Between July 1, 1994, and June 30, 1995, a health benefit
plan in force during this time may be renewed, if the number of employees
exceeds two, but does not exceed 49 employees.
and
(3) (5) "qualifying coverage" has the meaning given in
section 62L.02, subdivision 24.
and
.; and
Abrams | Erhardt | Kahn | Mares | Pawlenty | Sviggum |
Anderson, B. | Evans | Kalis | Mariani | Paymar | Swenson, D. |
Anderson, I. | Finseth | Kelso | Marko | Pelowski | Swenson, H. |
Bakk | Folliard | Kielkucki | McCollum | Peterson | Sykora |
Bettermann | Garcia | Kinkel | McElroy | Pugh | Tingelstad |
Biernat | Goodno | Knight | McGuire | Rest | Tomassoni |
Bishop | Greenfield | Knoblach | Milbert | Reuter | Tompkins |
Boudreau | Greiling | Koppendrayer | Molnau | Rhodes | Trimble |
Bradley | Gunther | Koskinen | Mulder | Rifenberg | Tuma |
Broecker | Haas | Kraus | Mullery | Rostberg | Tunheim |
Carlson | Harder | Krinkie | Munger | Rukavina | Van Dellen |
Chaudhary | Hasskamp | Kubly | Murphy | Schumacher | Vickerman |
Clark | Hausman | Kuisle | Ness | Seagren | Wagenius |
Commers | Hilty | Larsen | Nornes | Seifert | Weaver |
Daggett | Holsten | Leighton | Olson, E. | Sekhon | Wejcman |
Davids | Huntley | Leppik | Olson, M. | Skare | Wenzel |
Dawkins | Jaros | Lieder | Opatz | Skoglund | Westfall |
Dehler | Jefferson | Lindner | Orfield | Slawik | Westrom |
Delmont | Jennings | Long | Osskopp | Smith | Winter |
Dempsey | Johnson, A. | Luther | Osthoff | Solberg | Wolf |
Dorn | Johnson, R. | Macklin | Ozment | Stanek | Workman |
Entenza | Juhnke | Mahon | Paulsen | Stang | Spk. Carruthers |
The bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.
The Speaker resumed the Chair.
S. F. No. 501 was reported to the House.
Entenza moved to amend S. F. No. 501 as follows:
Delete everything after the enacting clause and insert the following language of H. F. No. 1032, the first engrossment:
"Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 45.011, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. [SCOPE.] As used in chapters 45 to 83,
155A, 309, 332, 345, and 359, and sections 326.83 to Sec. 2. [45.0111] [TEMPORARY LICENSES.]
Subdivision 1. [AUTHORITY.]
The commissioner may grant a temporary license to an
applicant who can demonstrate successful completion of all requirements for a
permanent license. The temporary license will remain in effect until the
earliest of:
(1) receipt by the applicant of
the permanent license;
(2) the expiration of 45 days
from the date on which the temporary license was granted; or
(3) denial by the commissioner
of the permanent license.
Subd. 2. [NONAPPLICATION.]
A temporary license as described in this section may not
be issued to an applicant for licensure as a:
(1) currency exchange regulated
under chapter 53A;
(2) collection agency regulated
under sections 332.31 to 332.45;
(3) credit service organization
regulated under sections 332.52 to 332.60; or
(4) broker dealer, investment
advisor, or agent regulated under chapter 80A.
Sec. 3. [45.0112] [STREET ADDRESSES REQUIRED.]
Licensees or applicants for
licenses issued by the commissioner shall provide to the commissioner a
residence telephone number, a street address where the licensee actually
resides, and a street address where the licensee's business is physically
located. A post office box address is not sufficient to satisfy this
requirement. The individual shall notify the department of any change in street
address or residence telephone number within ten days.
Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 45.028,
subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. [REQUIREMENT.] (a) When a person,
including any nonresident of this state, engages in conduct prohibited or made
actionable by chapters 45 to 83, 155A, 309, and 332, and
section 326.83, or any rule or order under those chapters, and the person
has not filed a consent to service of process under chapters 45 to 83, 155A,
309, and 332, and section 326.83, that conduct is
equivalent to an appointment of the commissioner as the person's attorney to
receive service of process in any noncriminal suit, action, or proceeding
against the person which is based on that conduct and is brought under chapters
45 to 83, 155A, 309, and 332, and section 326.83, or
any rule or order under those chapters.
(b) Subdivision 2 applies in all other cases under
chapters 45 to 83, 155A, 309, and 332, and section
326.83, or any rule or order under those chapters, in which a person,
including a nonresident of this state, has filed a consent to service of
process. This paragraph supersedes any inconsistent provision of law.
(c) Subdivision 2 applies in all cases in which service
of process is allowed to be made on the commissioner of commerce.
Sec. 5. [45.0292] [LICENSE RECIPROCITY.]
The commissioner may waive all
or part of the requirements of prelicense education, examination, and continuing
education for individuals of other jurisdictions if:
(1) a written reciprocal
licensing agreement is in effect between the commissioner and the licensing
officials of that jurisdiction;
(2) the individual is licensed
in that jurisdiction; and
(3) the licensing requirements
of that jurisdiction are substantially similar to the corresponding licensing
requirements of the commerce department.
Sec. 6. [60K.20] [SOCIAL SECURITY NUMBERS OF LICENSED
AGENTS; COMMISSIONER'S AUTHORITY TO PROVIDE TO NAIC.]
The commissioner may provide the
social security numbers of licensed insurance agents to the National Association
of Insurance Commissioners.
Sec. 7. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.02,
subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. [ADVISORY ACTIVITIES AND PRINCIPAL TRANSACTIONS.] (a) It is unlawful for any person who receives,
directly or indirectly, any consideration from another primarily for advising
the other as to the value of securities or their purchase or sale:
Sec. 8. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.04,
subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3. It is unlawful for any person to transact
business in this state as an investment adviser unless that person is so
licensed or licensed as a broker-dealer under this chapter or unless: (1) that person's only clients in this state are
investment companies as defined in the Investment Company Act of 1940, other
investment advisers, broker-dealers, banks, trust companies, savings
associations, federal covered advisers insurance
companies, Sec. 9. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.04,
subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4. Every license Sec. 10. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.04, is
amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 5. Except with respect to
advisers whose only clients are those described in subdivision 3, clause (2), it
is unlawful for a federal covered adviser to conduct advisory business in this
state unless the person complies with section 80A.05, subdivision 1a.
Sec. 11. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.05, is
amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 1a. [FEDERAL COVERED
ADVISERS.] Except with respect to federal covered
advisers whose only clients are those described in section 80A.04, subdivision
3, clause (2), a federal covered adviser shall file with the commissioner,
before acting as a federal covered adviser in this state, all documents required
by the commissioner that have been filed with the Securities and Exchange
Commission. Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, until October
10, 1999, the commissioner may require the registration of any federal covered
investment adviser who has failed to promptly pay the fees required by section
80A.28 after being notified in writing by the commissioner of the nonpayment or
underpayment of such fees. A person shall be considered to have promptly paid
such fees if the fees are remitted to the commissioner within 15 days following
the receipt of written notification from the commissioner.
Sec. 12. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.05,
subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4. The commissioner may by rule require a minimum
capital for broker-dealers, subject to the limitations
of section 15 of the Securities Act of 1934, and establish minimum financial requirements for investment
advisers Sec. 13. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.05,
subdivision 5, is amended to read:
Subd. 5. The commissioner may by rule require licensed
broker-dealers, agents and investment advisers who have
custody of or discretionary authority over client funds or securities, to
post surety bonds in amounts Sec. 14. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.06,
subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. Every licensed broker-dealer and
investment adviser shall make and keep all accounts, correspondence, memoranda,
papers, books and other records which the commissioner by rule prescribes by rule or order, except as provided by section 15 of the
Securities Act of 1934 in the case of a broker-dealer and section 222 of the
Investment Advisers Act of 1940 in the case of an investment adviser. All
records required shall be preserved for three years unless the commissioner by
rule prescribes otherwise for particular types of records. All required records
shall be kept within the state or shall, at the request of the commissioner, be
made available at any time for examination by the commissioner either in the
principal office of the licensee or by production of exact copies thereof in
this state.
Sec. 15. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.06,
subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. Every licensed broker-dealer and investment
adviser shall file such reports as the commissioner by rule or order prescribes except as
provided in section 15 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 in the case of a
broker-dealer and section 222 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 in the case
of an investment adviser.
Sec. 16. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.06,
subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3. If the information contained in any document
filed with the commissioner is or becomes inaccurate or incomplete in any
material respect, the licensee or federal covered
adviser shall within 30 days file a correcting amendment unless notification
of the correction has been given under section 80A.04, subdivision 2.
Sec. 17. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.08, is
amended to read:
80A.08 [REGISTRATION REQUIREMENT.]
It is unlawful for any person to offer or sell any
security in this state unless (a) it is registered under sections 80A.01 to
80A.31 or (b) the security or transaction is exempted under section 80A.15 or (c) it is a federal covered security.
Sec. 18. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.12, is
amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 12. [COORDINATED
REGISTRATION.] The commissioner may enter into
cooperative and reciprocal agreements with members of a national securities
regulatory organization composed of securities administrators of this and other
states to participate in a coordinated review of securities offerings in lieu of
conducting the commissioner's own review.
Sec. 19. [80A.122] [FEDERAL COVERED SECURITIES.]
Subdivision 1. [18(b)(2)
FILINGS.] The commissioner may, by rule or otherwise,
require the filing of any or all of the following documents with respect to a
federal covered security under section 18(b)(2) of the Securities Act of
1933:
(1) prior to the initial offer
of a federal covered security in this state, all documents that are part of a
current federal registration statement filed with the Securities and Exchange
Commission under the Securities Act of 1933, together with a fee and a consent
to service of process;
(2) after the initial offer of a
federal covered security in this state, all documents that are part of an
amendment to a current federal registration statement filed with the Securities
and Exchange Commission under the Securities Act of 1933, which must be filed
concurrently with the commissioner;
(3) notices that increase the
aggregate amount of securities offered or sold in this state, together with the
fee;
(4) notwithstanding any other
provision of this section, until October 10, 1999, a federal covered security
for which the fees required by section 80A.28 have not been promptly paid after
the issuer of such securities has been notified in writing by the commissioner
of the nonpayment or underpayment of such fees. An issuer shall be considered to
have promptly paid such fees if the fees are remitted to the commissioner within
15 days following the receipt of written notification from the commissioner.
Subd. 2. [18(b)(4)(D)
FILINGS.] With respect to a security that is a federal
covered security under section 18(b)(4)(D) of the Securities Act of 1933, the
commissioner, by rule or otherwise, may require the issuer to file a notice on
form D of the Securities and Exchange Commission, together with a fee and a
consent to service of process no later than 15 days after the first sale of the
covered security in this state.
Subd. 3. [18(b)(3) or (4)
FILINGS.] The commissioner, by rule or otherwise, may
require the filing of any document filed with the Securities and Exchange
Commission under the Securities Act of 1933 with respect to a federal covered
security under section 18(b)(3) or (4) of the Securities Act of 1933 together
with the fee.
Subd. 4. [STOP ORDERS.] The commissioner may issue a stop order suspending the
offer and sale of a federal covered security, except a federal covered security
under section 18(b)(1) of the Securities Act of 1933, if the commissioner finds
that: (1) the order is in the public interest; and (2) there is a failure to
comply with any condition established under this section.
Subd. 5. [COMMISSIONER'S
WAIVER.] The commissioner may, by rule or otherwise,
waive any or all of the provisions of this section.
Sec. 20. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.14,
subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3. [AGENT.] "Agent" means any individual other
than a broker-dealer who represents a broker-dealer or issuer in effecting or
attempting to effect purchases or sales of securities. "Agent" does not
include:
(a) an individual who
represents an issuer in:
(1) effecting transactions in a security exempted by
section 80A.15, subdivision 1;
(2) effecting transactions exempted by section 80A.15,
subdivision 2;
(3) effecting transactions with existing employees,
partners or directors of the issuer if no commission or other remuneration is
paid or given directly or indirectly for soliciting any person in this state;
(4) effecting other transactions, if the individual is
an officer or director of the issuer, no commission or other remuneration is
paid or given directly or indirectly for soliciting any person in this state,
and, upon application, the individual is specifically authorized by name in an
order issued by the commissioner; (5) effecting transactions in securities registered by
notification under section 80A.09 if no commission or other remuneration is paid
or given directly or indirectly for soliciting any person in this state (6) effecting transactions in a
federal covered security as described in sections 18(b)(3) and 18(b)(4) of the
Securities Act of 1933; or
(b) an individual who represents
a broker-dealer in effecting transactions in the state limited to those
transactions described in section 15(h)(2) of the Securities Exchange Act of
1934.
A partner, officer or director of a broker-dealer or
issuer, or a person occupying a similar status or performing similar functions,
is an agent only if that person otherwise comes within this definition.
Sec. 21. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.14,
subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4. [BROKER-DEALER.] "Broker-dealer" means any
person engaged in the business of effecting transactions in securities for the
account of others or for that person's own account. "Broker-dealer" does not
include:
(1) an agent;
(2) an issuer;
(3) a trust company; or
(4) a bank, savings institution, savings association,
credit union:
(i) acting for the account of others, provided that such
activities are conducted in compliance with such rules as may be adopted by the
commissioner;
(ii) acting for its own account; or
(iii) acting in a fiduciary capacity pursuant to the
powers and privileges described by sections 48.36 to 48.49 or United States
Code, title 12, section 92(a);
(5) a person who has no place of business in this state
if that person effects transactions in this state exclusively with or through
(i) the issuers of the securities involved in the transactions, (ii) other
broker-dealers, or (iii) banks, savings institutions, trust companies, insurance
companies, investment companies as defined in the Investment Company Act of
1940, (6) other persons not within the intent of this
subsection whom the commissioner by rule or order designates.
Sec. 22. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.14, is
amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 5a. [FEDERAL COVERED
ADVISER.] "Federal covered adviser" means a person who
is: (1) registered under section 203 of the Investment Act of 1940; or (2) is
excluded from the definition of "investment adviser" under section
202(a)(11).
Sec. 23. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.14, is
amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 5b. [FEDERAL COVERED
SECURITY.] "Federal covered security" means a security
that is a covered security under section 18(b) of the Securities Act of 1933 or
regulations adopted under that act.
Sec. 24. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.14, is
amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 8a. [INSTITUTIONAL
BUYER.] For the purposes of sections 80A.04, subdivision
3; 80A.14, subdivision 4, clause (5); and 80A.15, subdivision 2, paragraph (g),
"institutional buyer" includes, but is not limited to, a corporation with a
class of equity securities registered under section 12(b) or 12(g) of the
Securities Exchange Act of 1934, as amended, a "qualified institutional buyer"
within the meaning of rule 144A, and an "accredited investor" within the meaning
of rule 501(a) of regulation D.
Sec. 25. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.15,
subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. The following securities are exempted
from sections 80A.08 and 80A.16:
(a) Any security, including a revenue obligation, issued or guaranteed by the United States, any state,
any political subdivision of a state, or any agency or corporate or other instrumentality of one or
more of the foregoing (b) Any security issued or guaranteed by Canada, any
Canadian province, any political subdivision of any province, any agency or
corporate or other instrumentality of one or more of the foregoing, if the
security is recognized as a valid obligation by the issuer or guarantor; but
this exemption shall not include any revenue obligation payable solely from
payments to be made in respect of property or money used under a lease, sale or
loan arrangement by or for a nongovernmental industrial or commercial
enterprise.
(c) Any security issued by and representing an interest
in or a debt of, or guaranteed by, any bank organized under the laws of the
United States, or any bank, savings institution or trust company organized under
the laws of any state and subject to regulation in respect of the issuance or
guarantee of its securities by a governmental authority of that state.
(d) Any security issued by and representing an interest
in or a debt of, or guaranteed by, any federal savings association, or any
savings association or similar association organized under the laws of any state
and authorized to do business in this state.
(e) Any security issued or guaranteed by any federal
credit union or any credit union, or similar association organized and
supervised under the laws of this state.
(f) Any security listed or approved for listing upon
notice of issuance on the New York Stock Exchange, the American Stock Exchange,
the Midwest Stock Exchange, the Pacific Stock Exchange, or the Chicago Board
Options Exchange; any other security of the same issuer which is of senior or
substantially equal rank; any security called for by subscription rights or
warrants so listed or approved; or any warrant or right to purchase or subscribe
to any of the foregoing. This exemption does not apply to second tier listings
on any of the exchanges in this paragraph.
(g) Any commercial paper which arises out of a current
transaction or the proceeds of which have been or are to be used for current
transactions, and which evidences an obligation to pay cash within nine months
of the date of issuance, exclusive of days of grace, or any renewal of the paper
which is likewise limited, or any guarantee of the paper or of any renewal which
are not advertised for sale to the general public in newspapers or other
publications of general circulation or otherwise, or by radio, television or
direct mailing.
(h) Any interest in any employee's savings, stock
purchase, pension, profit sharing or similar benefit plan, or a self-employed
person's retirement plan.
(i) Any security issued or guaranteed by any railroad,
other common carrier or public utility which is subject to regulation in respect
to the issuance or guarantee of its securities by a governmental authority of
the United States.
(j) Any interest in a common trust fund or similar fund
maintained by a state bank or trust company organized and operating under the
laws of Minnesota, or a national bank wherever located, for the collective
investment and reinvestment of funds contributed thereto by the bank or trust
company in its capacity as trustee, executor, administrator, or guardian; and
any interest in a collective investment fund or similar fund maintained by the
bank or trust company, or in a separate account maintained by an insurance
company, for the collective investment and reinvestment of funds contributed
thereto by the bank, trust company or insurance company in its capacity as
trustee or agent, which interest is issued in connection with an employee's
savings, pension, profit sharing or similar benefit plan, or a self-employed
person's retirement plan.
(k) Any security which meets all of the following
conditions:
(1) If the issuer is not organized under the laws of the
United States or a state, it has appointed a duly authorized agent in the United
States for service of process and has set forth the name and address of the
agent in its prospectus;
(2) A class of the issuer's securities is required to be
and is registered under section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, and
has been so registered for the three years immediately preceding the offering
date;
(3) Neither the issuer nor a significant subsidiary has
had a material default during the last seven years, or for the period of the
issuer's existence if less than seven years, in the payment of (i) principal,
interest, dividend, or sinking fund installment on preferred stock or
indebtedness for borrowed money, or (ii) rentals under leases with terms of
three years or more;
(4) The issuer has had consolidated net income, before
extraordinary items and the cumulative effect of accounting changes, of at least
$1,000,000 in four of its last five fiscal years including its last fiscal year;
and if the offering is of interest bearing securities, has had for its last
fiscal year, net income, before deduction for income taxes and depreciation, of
at least 1-1/2 times the issuer's annual interest expense, giving effect to the
proposed offering and the intended use of the proceeds. For the purposes of this
clause "last fiscal year" means the most recent year for which audited financial
statements are available, provided that such statements cover a fiscal period
ended not more than 15 months from the commencement of the offering;
(5) If the offering is of stock or shares other than
preferred stock or shares, the securities have voting rights and the rights
include (i) the right to have at least as many votes per share, and (ii) the
right to vote on at least as many general corporate decisions, as each of the
issuer's outstanding classes of stock or shares, except as otherwise required by
law; and
(6) If the offering is of stock or shares, other than
preferred stock or shares, the securities are owned beneficially or of record,
on any date within six months prior to the commencement of the offering, by at
least 1,200 persons, and on that date there are at least 750,000 such shares
outstanding with an aggregate market value, based on the average bid price for
that day, of at least $3,750,000. In connection with the determination of the
number of persons who are beneficial owners of the stock or shares of an issuer,
the issuer or broker-dealer may rely in good faith for the purposes of this
clause upon written information furnished by the record owners.
(l) Any certificate of indebtedness sold or issued for
investment, other than a certificate of indebtedness pledged as a security for a
loan made contemporaneously therewith, and any savings account or savings
deposit issued, by an industrial loan and thrift company.
(m) Any security designated or approved for designation
upon notice of issuance on the NASDAQ/National Market System; any other security
of the same issuer that is of senior or substantially equal rank; any security
called for by subscription rights or warrants so designated or approved; or any
warrant or right to purchase or subscribe to any of the securities referred to
in this paragraph; provided that the National Market System provides the
commissioner with notice of any material change in its designation requirements.
The commissioner may revoke this exemption if the commissioner determines that
the designation requirements are not enforced or are amended in a manner that
lessens protection to investors.
Sec. 26. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.15,
subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. The following transactions are exempted from
sections 80A.08 and 80A.16:
(a) Any sales, whether or not effected through a
broker-dealer, provided that:
(1) no person shall make more than ten sales of
securities of the same issuer pursuant to this exemption, exclusive of sales
according to clause (2), during any period of 12 consecutive months; provided
further, that in the case of sales by an issuer, except sales of securities
registered under the Securities Act of 1933 or exempted by section 3(b) of that
act, (i) the seller reasonably believes that all buyers are purchasing for
investment, and (ii) the securities are not advertised for sale to the general
public in newspapers or other publications of general circulation or otherwise,
or by radio, television, electronic means or similar communications media, or
through a program of general solicitation by means of mail or telephone; and
(2) no issuer shall make more than 25 sales of its
securities according to this exemption, exclusive of sales pursuant to clause
(1), during any period of 12 consecutive months; provided further, that the
issuer meets the conditions in clause (1) and, in addition meets the following
additional conditions: (i) files with the commissioner, ten days before a sale
according to this clause, a statement of issuer on a form prescribed by the
commissioner; and (ii) no commission or other remuneration is paid or given
directly or indirectly for soliciting any prospective buyers in this state in
connection with a sale according to this clause except reasonable and customary
commissions paid by the issuer to a broker-dealer licensed under this chapter.
(b) Any nonissuer distribution of an outstanding
security if (1) either Moody's, Fitch's, or Standard & Poor's Securities
Manuals, or other recognized manuals approved by the commissioner contains the
names of the issuer's officers and directors, a balance sheet of the issuer as
of a date not more than 18 months prior to the date of the sale, and a profit
and loss statement for the fiscal year preceding the date of the balance sheet,
and (2) the issuer or its predecessor has been in active, continuous business
operation for the five-year period next preceding the date of sale, and (3) if
the security has a fixed maturity or fixed interest or dividend provision, the
issuer has not, within the three preceding fiscal years, defaulted in payment of
principal, interest, or dividends on the securities.
(c) The execution of any orders by a licensed
broker-dealer for the purchase or sale of any security, pursuant to an
unsolicited offer to purchase or sell; provided that the broker-dealer acts as
agent for the purchaser or seller, and has no direct material interest in the
sale or distribution of the security, receives no commission, profit, or other
compensation from any source other than the purchaser and seller and delivers to
the purchaser and seller written confirmation of the transaction which clearly
itemizes the commission, or other compensation.
(d) Any nonissuer sale of notes or bonds secured by a
mortgage lien if the entire mortgage, together with all notes or bonds secured
thereby, is sold to a single purchaser at a single sale.
(e) Any judicial sale, exchange, or issuance of
securities made pursuant to an order of a court of competent jurisdiction.
(f) The sale, by a pledge holder, of a security pledged
in good faith as collateral for a bona fide debt.
(g) Any offer or sale to a bank, savings institution,
trust company, insurance company, investment company as defined in the
Investment Company Act of 1940, (h) An offer or sale of securities by an issuer made in
reliance on the exemptions provided by Rule 505 or 506 of Regulation D
promulgated by the Securities and Exchange Commission, Code of Federal
Regulations, title 17, sections 230.501 to 230.508, subject to the conditions
and definitions provided by Rules 501 to 503 of Regulation D, if the offer and
sale also satisfies the conditions and limitations in clauses (1) to (10).
(1) The exemption under this paragraph is not available
for the securities of an issuer if any of the persons described in Rule 252(c)
to (f) of Regulation A promulgated by the Securities and Exchange Commission,
Code of Federal Regulations, title 17, sections 230.251 to 230.263:
(i) has filed a registration statement that is the
subject of a currently effective order entered against the issuer, its officers,
directors, general partners, controlling persons, or affiliates, according to
any state's law within five years before the filing of the notice required under
clause (5), denying effectiveness to, or suspending or revoking the
effectiveness of, the registration statement;
(ii) has been convicted, within five years before the
filing of the notice required under clause (5), of a felony or misdemeanor in
connection with the offer, sale, or purchase of a security or franchise, or a
felony involving fraud or deceit, including but not limited to forgery,
embezzlement, obtaining money under false pretenses, larceny, or conspiracy to
defraud;
(iii) is subject to an effective administrative order or
judgment entered by a state securities administrator within five years before
the filing of the notice required under clause (5), that prohibits, denies, or
revokes the use of an exemption from securities registration, that prohibits the
transaction of business by the person as a broker-dealer or agent, or that is
based on fraud, deceit, an untrue statement of a material fact, or an omission
to state a material fact; or
(iv) is subject to an order, judgment, or decree of a
court entered within five years before the filing of the notice required under
clause (5), temporarily, preliminarily, or permanently restraining or enjoining
the person from engaging in or continuing any conduct or practice in connection
with the offer, sale, or purchase of a security, or the making of a false filing
with a state.
A disqualification under paragraph (h) involving a
broker-dealer or agent is waived if the broker-dealer or agent is or continues
to be licensed in the state in which the administrative order or judgment was
entered against the person or if the broker-dealer or agent is or continues to
be licensed in this state as a broker-dealer or agent after notifying the
commissioner of the act or event causing disqualification.
The commissioner may waive a disqualification under
paragraph (h) upon a showing of good cause that it is not necessary under the
circumstances that use of the exemption be denied.
A disqualification under paragraph (h) may be waived if
the state securities administrator or agency of the state that created the basis
for disqualification has determined, upon a showing of good cause, that it is
not necessary under the circumstances that an exemption from registration of
securities under the state's laws be denied.
It is a defense to a violation of paragraph (h) based
upon a disqualification if the issuer sustains the burden of proof to establish
that the issuer did not know, and in the exercise of reasonable care could not
have known, that a disqualification under paragraph (h) existed.
(2) This exemption must not be available to an issuer
with respect to a transaction that, although in technical compliance with this
exemption, is part of a plan or scheme to evade registration or the conditions
or limitations explicitly stated in paragraph (h).
(3) No commission, finder's fee, or other remuneration
shall be paid or given, directly or indirectly, for soliciting a prospective
purchaser, unless the recipient is appropriately (4) Nothing in this exemption is intended to or should
be in any way construed as relieving issuers or persons acting on behalf of
issuers from providing disclosure to prospective investors adequate to satisfy
the antifraud provisions of the securities law of Minnesota.
(5) The issuer shall file with the commissioner a notice
on form D as adopted by the Securities and Exchange Commission according to
Regulation D, Code of Federal Regulations, title 17, section 230.502. The notice
must be filed not later than 15 days after the first sale in this state of
securities in an offering under this exemption. Every notice on form D must be
manually signed by a person duly authorized by the issuer and must be
accompanied by a consent to service of process on a form prescribed by the
commissioner.
(6) A failure to comply with a term, condition, or
requirement of paragraph (h) will not result in loss of the exemption for an
offer or sale to a particular individual or entity if the person relying on the
exemption shows that: (i) the failure to comply did not pertain to a term,
condition, or requirement directly intended to protect that particular
individual or entity, and the failure to comply was insignificant with respect
to the offering as a whole; and (ii) a good faith and reasonable attempt was
made to comply with all applicable terms, conditions, and requirements of
paragraph (h), except that, where an exemption is established only through
reliance upon this provision, the failure to comply shall nonetheless constitute
a violation of section 80A.08 and be actionable by the commissioner.
(7) The issuer, upon request by the commissioner, shall,
within ten days of the request, furnish to the commissioner a copy of any and
all information, documents, or materials furnished to investors or offerees in
connection with the offer and sale according to paragraph (h).
(8) Neither compliance nor attempted compliance with the
exemption provided by paragraph (h), nor the absence of an objection or order by
the commissioner with respect to an offer or sale of securities undertaken
according to this exemption, shall be considered to be a waiver of a condition
of the exemption or considered to be a confirmation by the commissioner of the
availability of this exemption.
(9) The commissioner may, by rule or order, increase the
number of purchasers or waive any other condition of this exemption.
(10) The determination whether offers and sales made in
reliance on the exemption set forth in paragraph (h) shall be integrated with
offers and sales according to other paragraphs of this subdivision shall be made
according to the integration standard set forth in Rule 502 of Regulation D
promulgated by the Securities and Exchange Commission, Code of Federal
Regulations, title 17, section 230.502. If not subject to integration according
to that rule, offers and sales according to paragraph (h) shall not otherwise be
integrated with offers and sales according to other exemptions set forth in this
subdivision.
(i) Any offer (but not a sale) of a security for which a
registration statement has been filed under sections 80A.01 to 80A.31, if no
stop order or refusal order is in effect and no public proceeding or examination
looking toward an order is pending; and any offer of a security if the sale of
the security is or would be exempt under this section. The commissioner may by
rule exempt offers (but not sales) of securities for which a registration
statement has been filed as the commissioner deems appropriate, consistent with
the purposes of sections 80A.01 to 80A.31.
(j) The offer and sale by a cooperative organized under
chapter 308A or under the laws of another state, of its securities when the
securities are offered and sold only to its members, or when the purchase of the
securities is necessary or incidental to establishing membership in the
cooperative, or when such securities are issued as patronage dividends. This
paragraph applies to a cooperative organized under the laws of another state
only if the cooperative has filed with the commissioner a consent to service of
process under section 80A.27, subdivision 7, and has, not less than ten days
prior to the issuance or delivery, furnished the commissioner with a written
general description of the transaction and any other information that the
commissioner requires by rule or otherwise.
(l) The issuance and delivery of any securities of one
corporation to another corporation or its security holders in connection with a
merger, exchange of shares, or transfer of assets whereby the approval of
stockholders of the other corporation is required to be obtained, provided, that
the commissioner has been furnished with a general description of the
transaction and with other information as the commissioner by rule prescribes
not less than ten days prior to the issuance and delivery.
(m) Any transaction between the issuer or other person
on whose behalf the offering is made and an underwriter or among underwriters.
(n) The distribution by a corporation of its or other
securities to its own security holders as a stock dividend or as a dividend from
earnings or surplus or as a liquidating distribution; or upon conversion of an
outstanding convertible security; or pursuant to a stock split or reverse stock
split.
(o) Any offer or sale of securities by an affiliate of
the issuer thereof if: (1) a registration statement is in effect with respect to
securities of the same class of the issuer and (2) the offer or sale has been
exempted from registration by rule or order of the commissioner.
(p) Any transaction pursuant to an offer to existing
security holders of the issuer, including persons who at the time of the
transaction are holders of convertible securities, nontransferable warrants, or
transferable warrants exercisable within not more than 90 days of their
issuance, if: (1) no commission or other remuneration (other than a standby
commission) is paid or given directly or indirectly for soliciting any security
holder in this state; and (2) the commissioner has been furnished with a general
description of the transaction and with other information as the commissioner
may by rule prescribe no less than ten days prior to the transaction.
(q) Any nonissuer sales of any security, including a
revenue obligation, issued by the state of Minnesota or any of its political or
governmental subdivisions, municipalities, governmental agencies, or
instrumentalities.
(r) Any transaction as to which the commissioner by rule
or order finds that registration is not necessary in the public interest and for
the protection of investors.
(s) An offer or sale of a security issued in connection
with an employee's stock purchase, savings, option, profit sharing, pension, or
similar employee benefit plan, if the following conditions are met:
(1) the issuer, its parent corporation or any of its
majority-owned subsidiaries offers or sells the security according to a written
benefit plan or written contract relating to the compensation of the purchaser;
and
(2) the class of securities offered according to the
plan or contract, or if an option or right to purchase a security, the class of
securities to be issued upon the exercise of the option or right, is registered
under section 12 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, or is a class of
securities with respect to which the issuer files reports according to section
15(d) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934; or
(3) the issuer fully complies with the provisions of
Rule 701 as adopted by the Securities and Exchange Commission, Code of Federal
Regulations, title 12, section 230.701.
The issuer shall file not less than ten days before the
transaction, a general description of the transaction and any other information
that the commissioner requires by rule or otherwise or, if applicable, a
Securities and Exchange Form S-8. Annually, within 90 days after the end of the
issuer's fiscal year, the issuer shall file a notice as provided with the
commissioner.
(t) Any sale of a security of an issuer that is a pooled
income fund, a charitable remainder trust, or a charitable lead trust that has a
qualified charity as the only charitable beneficiary.
(u) Any sale by a qualified charity of a security that
is a charitable gift annuity if the issuer has a net worth, otherwise defined as
unrestricted fund balance, of not less than $300,000 and either: (1) has been in
continuous operation for not less than three years; or (2) is a successor or
affiliate of a qualified charity that has been in continuous operation for not
less than three years.
Sec. 27. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.16, is
amended to read:
80A.16 [FILING OF SALES AND ADVERTISING LITERATURE.]
The commissioner may by rule or order require the filing
of any prospectus, pamphlet, circular, form letter, advertisement, or other
sales literature or advertising communication addressed or intended for
distribution to prospective investors, including clients or prospective clients
of an investment adviser or broker-dealer unless:
(1) the security or
transaction is exempted by section 80A.15; or
(2) the security is a federal
covered security.
Sec. 28. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.28,
subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. (a) There shall be a filing fee of $100
for every application for registration. There shall be an additional fee of
one-tenth of one percent of the maximum aggregate offering price at which the
registered securities are to be offered in this state, and the maximum combined
fees shall not exceed $300.
(b) (c) Where a filing is made in
connection with a federal covered security under section 18(b)(2) of the
Securities Act of 1933, there is a fee of $100 for every initial filing. There
is an additional fee of 1/20 of one percent of the maximum aggregate offering
price at which the securities are to be offered in this state. There is no
maximum fee for securities filings made according to this section.
Sec. 29. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80A.28,
subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. Every applicant for an initial or renewal
license shall pay a filing fee of $200 in the case of a broker-dealer, $50 in
the case of an agent, and $100 in the case of an investment adviser. When an
application is denied or withdrawn, the filing fee shall be retained. A licensed
agent who has terminated employment with one broker-dealer shall, before
beginning employment with another broker-dealer, pay a transfer fee of $25. The fee for a filing made according to section 80A.05,
subdivision 1a, is $100.
Sec. 30. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80C.01,
subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4. "Franchise" means (a) a contract or agreement,
either express or implied, whether oral or written, for a definite or indefinite
period, between two or more persons:
(1) by which a franchisee is granted the right to engage
in the business of offering or distributing goods or services using the
franchisor's trade name, trademark, service mark, logotype, advertising, or
other commercial symbol or related characteristics;
(2) in which the franchisor and franchisee have a
community of interest in the marketing of goods or services at wholesale,
retail, by lease, agreement, or otherwise; and
(3) for which the franchisee pays, directly or
indirectly, a franchise fee; or
(b) a contract, lease, or other agreement, either
express or implied, whether oral or written, for a definite or indefinite
period, between two or more persons, whereby the franchisee is granted the right
to market motor vehicle fuel; or
(c) the sale or lease of any products, equipment,
chattels, supplies, or services to the purchaser, other than the sale of sales
demonstration equipment, materials or samples for a total price of $500 or less
to any one person, for the purpose of enabling the purchaser to start a business
and in which the seller:
(1) represents that the seller, lessor, or an affiliate
thereof will provide locations or assist the purchaser in finding locations for
the use or operation of vending machines, racks, display cases, or similar
devices, or currency operated amusement machines or devices, on premises neither
owned or leased by the purchaser or seller; or
(2) represents that the seller will purchase any or all
products made, produced, fabricated, grown, bred, or modified by the purchaser
using, in whole or in part, the supplies, services, or chattels sold to the
purchaser; or
(3) guarantees that the purchaser will derive income
from the business which exceeds the price paid to the seller; or
(d) an oral or written contract or agreement, either
expressed or implied, for a definite or indefinite period, between two or more
persons, under which a manufacturer, selling security systems through dealers or
distributors in this state, requires regular payments from the distributor or
dealer as royalties or residuals for products purchased and paid for by the
dealer or distributor.
(e) "Franchise" does not include any business which is
operated under a lease or license on the premises of the lessor or licensor as
long as such business is incidental to the business conducted by the lessor or
licensor on such premises, including, without limitation, leased departments,
licensed departments, and concessions.
(f) "Franchise" does not include any contract, lease or
other agreement whereby the franchisee is required to pay less than $100 on an
annual basis, except those franchises identified in paragraph (b).
(g) "Franchise" does not include a contract, lease or
other agreement between a new motor vehicle manufacturer, distributor, or
factory branch and a franchisee whereby the franchisee is granted the right to
market automobiles, motorcycles, trucks, truck tractors, or self-propelled motor
homes or campers if the foregoing are designed primarily for the transportation
of persons or property on public highways.
(h) "Franchise" does not include
a contract, lease, or other agreement or arrangement between two or more air
carriers, or between one or more air carriers and one or more foreign air
carriers. For purposes of this paragraph, "air carrier" and "foreign air
carrier" have the meanings provided in United States Code, title 49, sections
1301(3) and 1301(22), respectively.
Sec. 31. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 82.19, is
amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 9. [EXCLUSIVE AGENCY
AGREEMENTS.] (a) Except as provided in paragraph (b), a
licensee shall not negotiate the sale, exchange, lease, or listing of any real
property directly with the owner or lessor knowing that the owner or lessor has
executed a written exclusive listing contract or exclusive contract for
nonagency services in connection with the property with another real estate
broker, buyer, or lessee, nor shall a licensee negotiate the purchase, lease, or
exchange of real property knowing that the buyer or lessee has executed a
written exclusive buyer representation contract or exclusive contract for
nonagency services for the purchase, lease, or exchange of the real property
with another real estate broker.
(b) A licensee may discuss the
terms upon which a listing or buyer representation contract or a contract for
nonagency services may be entered into after expiration of any existing
exclusive contract when the inquiry or discussion is initiated by the owner,
lessor, buyer, or lessee, and may enter into a contract with the owner, lessor,
buyer, or lessee to begin after the expiration date of the existing exclusive
contract. The licensee must inquire of the owner, lessor, buyer, or lessee
whether such an exclusive contract exists.
Sec. 32. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 82.20,
subdivision 15, is amended to read:
Subd. 15. [EXEMPTION.] The following persons, when
acting as closing agents, are exempt from the requirements of sections 82.19 and
82.24 unless otherwise required in this section or chapter:
(1) a direct employee of a title insurance company
authorized to do business in this state, or a direct employee of a title
company, or a person who has an agency agreement with a title insurance company
or a title company in which the agent agrees to perform closing services on the
title insurance company's or title company's behalf and the title insurance
company or title company assumes responsibility for the actions of the agent as
if the agent were a direct employee of the title insurance company or title
company;
(2) a licensed attorney or a direct employee of a
licensed attorney;
(3) a licensed real estate broker or salesperson;
(4) a direct employee of a licensed real estate broker
if the broker maintains all funds received in connection with the closing
services in the broker's trust account;
(5) any bank, trust company, savings association, credit
union, industrial loan and thrift company, regulated lender under chapter 56,
public utility, or land mortgage or farm loan association organized under the
laws of this state or the United States, when engaged in the transaction of
businesses within the scope of its corporate powers as provided by law; (6) a title insurance company authorized to do business
in this state (7) a title company that has a
contractual agency relationship with a title insurance company authorized to do
business in this state, where the title insurance company assumes responsibility
for the actions of the title company and its employees or agents as if they were
the employees or agents of the title insurance company.
Sec. 33. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 82.22,
subdivision 13, is amended to read:
Subd. 13. [CONTINUING EDUCATION.] (a) After their first
renewal date, all real estate salespersons and all real estate brokers shall be
required to successfully complete 30 hours of real estate continuing education,
either as a student or a lecturer, in courses of study approved by the
commissioner, during each 24-month license period. At least 15 of the 30 credit
hours must be completed during the first 12 months of the 24-month licensing
period. Salespersons and brokers whose initial license period extends more than
12 months are required to complete 15 hours of real estate continuing education
during the initial license period. Those licensees who will receive a 12-month
license on July 1, 1995, because of the staggered implementation schedule must
complete 15 hours of real estate continuing education as a requirement for
renewal on July 1, 1996. Licensees may not claim credit for continuing education
not actually completed as of the date their report of continuing education
compliance is filed.
(b) The commissioner shall adopt rules defining the
standards for course and instructor approval, and may adopt rules for the proper
administration of this subdivision. The commissioner may
not approve a course which can be completed by the student at home or outside
the classroom without the supervision of an instructor approved by the
department of commerce. The commissioner has discretion to establish a pilot
program to explore delivery of accredited courses using new delivery technology,
including interactive technology. This pilot program expires on August 1,
2000.
(c) Any program approved by Minnesota continuing legal
education shall be approved by the commissioner of commerce for continuing
education for real estate brokers and salespeople if the program or any part
thereof relates to real estate.
(d) As part of the continuing education requirements of
this section, the commissioner shall require that all real estate brokers and
salespersons receive:
(1) at least two hours of training during each license
period in courses in laws or regulations on agency representation and
disclosure; and
(2) at least two hours of training during each license
period in courses in state and federal fair housing laws, regulations, and
rules, or other antidiscrimination laws.
Clause (1) does not apply to real estate salespersons
and real estate brokers engaged solely in the commercial real estate business
who file with the commissioner a verification of this status along with the
continuing education report required under paragraph (a).
(e) The commissioner is authorized to establish a
procedure for renewal of course accreditation.
Sec. 34. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 82.24,
subdivision 5, is amended to read:
Subd. 5. [TRUST (b) A check received from a
potential buyer shall be deposited into the listing broker's trust account not
later than the third business day after delivery of the check to the broker,
except that the check may be held by the listing broker until acceptance or
rejection of the offer if:
(1) the check by its terms is
not negotiable by the broker or if the potential buyer has given written
instructions that the check shall not be deposited or cashed until acceptance or
shall be immediately returned if the offer is rejected; and
(2) the potential seller is
informed that the check is being so held before or at the time the offer is
presented to that person for acceptance.
If the offer is accepted, the
check shall be deposited in a neutral escrow depository or the trust fund
account of the listing broker not later than the third business day following
acceptance of the offer unless the broker has received written authorization
from all parties to the transaction to continue to hold the check. If the offer
is rejected, the check shall be returned to the potential buyer not later than
the next business day after rejection.
Sec. 35. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 82B.13,
subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. [REGISTERED REAL PROPERTY APPRAISER OR
LICENSED REAL PROPERTY APPRAISER.] As a prerequisite for licensing as a
registered real property appraiser or licensed real property appraiser, an
applicant must present evidence satisfactory to the commissioner that the person
has successfully completed at least Sec. 36. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 82B.13,
subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4. [CERTIFIED RESIDENTIAL REAL PROPERTY
APPRAISER.] As a prerequisite for licensing as a certified residential real
property appraiser, an applicant must present evidence satisfactory to the
commissioner that the person has successfully completed at least Sec. 37. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 82B.13,
subdivision 5, is amended to read:
Subd. 5. [CERTIFIED GENERAL REAL PROPERTY APPRAISER.] As
a prerequisite for licensing as a certified general real property appraiser, an
applicant must present evidence satisfactory to the commissioner that the person
has successfully completed at least Sec. 38. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 82B.14, is
amended to read:
82B.14 [EXPERIENCE REQUIREMENT.]
(a) As a prerequisite for licensing
as a certified residential real property appraiser, an applicant must present
evidence satisfactory to the commissioner that the person has obtained 2,500
hours of experience in real property appraisal.
As a prerequisite for licensing
as a certified general real property appraiser, an applicant must present
evidence satisfactory to the commissioner that the person has obtained 3,000
hours of experience in real property appraisal.
(b) Each applicant for license under section 82B.11,
subdivision 3, 4, or 5, shall give under oath a detailed listing of the real
estate appraisal reports or file memoranda (c) Applicants may not receive credit for experience
accumulated while unlicensed, if the experience is based on activities which
required a license under this section.
Sec. 39. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 82B.19,
subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. [LICENSE RENEWALS.] A licensed real
estate appraiser shall present evidence satisfactory to the commissioner of
having met the continuing education requirements of this chapter before the
commissioner renews a license.
The basic continuing education requirement for renewal
of a license is the completion by the applicant either as a student or as an
instructor, during the immediately preceding term of licensing, of at least 30
classroom hours of instruction in courses or seminars that have received the
approval of the commissioner. As part of the continuing
education requirements
of this section, the commissioner shall require that all
real estate appraisers receive at least four hours of training each license
period in courses in laws or regulations on standards of professional
practice. Sec. 40. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 317A.141, is
amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 4. [EFFECT OF
AMENDMENTS ON CHARITABLE TRUST ASSETS.] Assets held by a
corporation, including income or fees from services, are restricted to the uses
and purposes for which the property was received and held.
Sec. 41. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 317A.671, is
amended to read:
317A.671 [CERTAIN ASSETS NOT TO BE DIVERTED.]
Except as provided in section 501B.31, when a
corporation dissolves, merges, substantially changes the
use or purposes for which it will use its assets, or consolidates, transfers
its assets, or grants a mortgage or other security interest in its assets,
assets of the corporation or a constituent corporation, and assets subsequently
received by a single corporation after a merger or consolidation, may not be
diverted from the uses and purposes for which the assets have been received and
held, or from the uses and purposes expressed or intended by the original donor.
Sec. 42. [325E.58] [SIGN CONTRACTOR; BOND.]
(a) A sign contractor may post a
compliance bond with the commissioner, conditioned that the sign contractor
shall faithfully perform duties and comply with laws, ordinances, rules, and
contracts entered into for the installation of signs. The bond must be renewed
annually and maintained for so long as determined by the commissioner. The
aggregate liability of the surety on the bond to any and all persons, regardless
of the number of claims made against the bond, may not exceed the annual amount
of the bond. The bond may be canceled as to future liability by the surety upon
30 days' written notice mailed to the commissioner by United States mail.
(b) The amount of the bond shall
be $8,000. The bond may be drawn upon only by a local unit of government that
requires sign installers to post a compliance bond. The bond is in lieu of any
compliance bond required by a local unit of government.
(c) For purposes of this
section, "sign" means a device, structure, fixture, or placard using graphics,
symbols, or written copy that is erected on the premises of an establishment
including the name of the establishment or identifying the merchandise,
services, activities, or entertainment available on the premises.
Sec. 43. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 326.83,
subdivision 11, is amended to read:
Subd. 11. [OWNER.] Except in section 326.91, subdivision
1, "owner" means a person who has any legal or equitable interest in real
property. For purposes of sections 326.83 to 326.991, "owner" does not include a
residential building contractor or residential remodeler who constructs or
improves its own property for purposes of speculation. A residential building
contractor or residential remodeler will be presumed to be building or improving
for purposes of speculation if it constructs or improves more than one property
within any Sec. 44. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 326.84,
subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3. [EXEMPTIONS.] The license requirement does not
apply to:
(1) an employee of a licensee performing work for the
licensee;
(2) a material person, manufacturer, or retailer
furnishing finished products, materials, or articles of merchandise who does not
install or attach the items;
(3) an owner or owners of residential real estate who
build or improve residential real estate and who do the work themselves or
jointly with the owner's own bona fide employees. This exemption does not apply
to a person who engages in a pattern of building or improving real estate for
purposes of resale. Such a pattern is presumed to exist if the person constructs
or improves more than one property within any (4) an architect or engineer engaging in professional
practice as defined in this chapter;
(5) a person whose total gross annual receipts from
projects regulated under this section do not exceed $15,000;
(6) a mechanical contractor;
(7) a plumber, electrician, or other person whose
profession is otherwise subject to statewide licensing, when engaged in the
activity which is the subject of licensure;
(8) specialty contractors who provide only one special
skill as defined in section 326.83;
(9) a school district, or a technical college governed
under chapter 136F;
(10) manufactured housing installers; and
(11) Habitat for Humanity and Builders Outreach
Foundation, and their individual volunteers when engaged in activities on their
behalf.
To qualify for the exemption in clause (5), a person
must obtain a certificate of exemption from licensing from the commissioner.
A certificate of exemption will be issued upon the
applicant's filing with the commissioner, an affidavit stating that the
applicant does not expect to exceed $15,000 in gross annual receipts derived
from contracting activities during the calendar year for which the exemption is
requested.
To renew the exemption in clause (5), the applicant must
file an affidavit stating that the applicant did not exceed $15,000 in gross
annual receipts during the past calendar year, and the applicant does not expect
to exceed $15,000 in gross annual receipts during the calendar year for which
the exemption is requested.
If a person, operating under the exemption in clause
(5), exceeds $15,000 in gross receipts during any calendar year, the person must
immediately surrender the exemption certificate and apply for the appropriate
license. The person must remain licensed until such time as the person's gross
annual receipts during a calendar year fall below $15,000. The person may then
apply for this exemption for the next calendar year.
Sec. 45. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 326.921, is
amended to read:
326.921 [BUILDING PERMIT CONDITIONED ON LICENSURE.]
A political subdivision shall not issue a building
permit to an unlicensed person who is required to be licensed under sections
326.83 to 326.991. A political subdivision that issues
zoning or land use permits in lieu of a building permit shall not issue those
permits to an unlicensed person who is required to be licensed under sections
326.83 to 326.911. The political subdivision shall report the person
applying for Sec. 46. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 332.33,
subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. [REQUIREMENT.] Except as otherwise
provided in this chapter, no person shall conduct within this state a collection
agency or engage within this state in the business of collecting claims for
others as defined in sections 332.31 to 332.45, without having first applied for
and obtained a collection agency license. A person acting under the authority of a collection agency,
as a collector, must first obtain a Minnesota collector license. Notwithstanding
any other law to the contrary, a licensed collector may not use an assumed
name.
Sec. 47. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 332.33, is
amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 7. [NOTICE.] A licensed collection agency or individual collector must
give the commissioner written notice of a change in personal name, company name,
address, or ownership not later than 15 days after the change occurs.
Sec. 48. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 332.34, is
amended to read:
332.34 [BOND.]
The commissioner of commerce shall require each
collection agency licensee to annually file and maintain in force a corporate
surety bond, in a form to be prescribed by, and acceptable to, the commissioner,
and in Sec. 49. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 359.061, is
amended to read:
359.061 [RECORD OF COMMISSION; CERTIFICATE.]
The commission of every notary shall be recorded in the
office of the court administrator of the district court of the notary's county
of residence, in a record kept for that purpose. The
commission of a nonresident notary must be recorded in the office of the court
administrator of the district court of the Minnesota county that borders the
county in which the nonresident notary resides. The court administrator,
when requested, shall certify to official acts in the manner and for the fees
prescribed by statute or court rule.
Sec. 50. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 359.071, is
amended to read:
359.071 [CHANGE OF NAME OR
ADDRESS.]
A notary shall notify the commissioner of any name or address change within 30 days of the change.
Sec. 51. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 501B.35,
subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3. [CHARITABLE TRUST.] "Charitable trust" means a
fiduciary relationship with respect to property that arises as a result of a
manifestation of an intention to create it, and that subjects the person by whom
the property is held to equitable duties to deal with the property for a
charitable purpose. As used in this definition, property
includes all income derived from fees for services.
Sec. 52. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 507.401,
subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. [CERTIFICATE OF RELEASE.] An officer or duly
appointed agent of a title insurance company may, on behalf of a mortgagor or a
person who acquired from the mortgagor title to all or a part of the property
described in a mortgage, execute a certificate of release that complies with the
requirements of this section and record the certificate of release in the real
property records of each county in which the mortgage is recorded if Sec. 53. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 507.401,
subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3. [CONTENTS.] A certificate of release executed
under this section must contain substantially all of the following:
(1) the name of the mortgagor, the name of the original
mortgagee, and, if applicable, the mortgage servicer, the date of the mortgage,
the date of recording, and volume and page or document number in the real
property records where the mortgage is recorded, together with similar
information for the last recorded assignment of the mortgage;
(2) a statement that the mortgage was in the original
principal amount of $500,000 or less;
(3) a statement that the person executing the
certificate of release is an officer or a duly appointed agent of a title
insurance company authorized and licensed to transact the business of insuring
titles to interests in real property in this state under chapter 68A;
(4) a statement that the certificate of release is made
on behalf of the mortgagor or a person who acquired title from the mortgagor to
all or a part of the property described in the mortgage;
(5) a statement that the mortgagee or mortgage servicer
provided a payoff statement which was used to make payment in full of the unpaid
balance of the loan secured by the mortgage; and
(6) a statement that payment in full of the unpaid
balance of the loan secured by the mortgage was made in accordance with the
written or verbal payoff statement. Sec. 54. [REPEALER.]
Minnesota Statutes 1996, section
60K.07, subdivision 1, is repealed.
Sec. 55. [EFFECTIVE DATE.]
Section 30 is effective the day
following final enactment and applies to all contracts, leases, or other
agreements in effect on or after that date. Sections 40, 41, and 51 are
effective the day following final enactment."
Delete the title and insert:
"A bill for an act relating to commerce; providing
powers and duties to the commissioner; regulating securities; modifying the
definition of franchise; regulating real estate brokers and salespersons;
modifying the real estate licensing exemption for closing agents; regulating
real property appraisers; regulating charitable trusts; requiring a compliance
bond for sign
contractors; regulating residential building contractors
and remodelers; modifying licensing requirements for collection agencies;
regulating notaries public; regulating certificates of release by title
insurance companies; making technical changes; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996,
sections 45.011, subdivision 1; 45.028, subdivision 1; 80A.02, subdivision 1;
80A.04, subdivisions 3, 4, and by adding a subdivision; 80A.05, subdivisions 4,
5, and by adding a subdivision; 80A.06, subdivisions 1, 2, and 3; 80A.08;
80A.12, by adding a subdivision; 80A.14, subdivisions 3, 4, and by adding
subdivisions; 80A.15, subdivisions 1 and 2; 80A.16; 80A.28, subdivisions 1 and
2; 80C.01, subdivision 4; 82.19, by adding a subdivision; 82.20, subdivision 15;
82.22, subdivision 13; 82.24, subdivision 5; 82B.13, subdivisions 1, 4, and 5;
82B.14; 82B.19, subdivision 1; 317A.141, by adding a subdivision; 317A.671;
326.83, subdivision 11; 326.84, subdivision 3; 326.921; 332.33, subdivision 1,
and by adding a subdivision; 332.34; 359.061; 359.071; 501B.35, subdivision 3;
and 507.401, subdivisions 2 and 3; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota
Statutes, chapters 45; 60K; 80A; and 325E; repealing Minnesota Statutes 1996,
section 60K.07, subdivision 1."
The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.
Entenza moved to amend S. F. No. 501, the unofficial
engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 25, delete section 30
The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.
Pugh, Abrams, Jennings, Weaver and Tunheim moved to
amend S. F. No. 501, the unofficial engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 25, after line 23, insert:
"Sec. 30. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 80C.01,
subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4. "Franchise" means (a) a contract or agreement,
either express or implied, whether oral or written, for a definite or indefinite
period, between two or more persons:
(1) by which a franchisee is granted the right to engage
in the business of offering or distributing goods or services using the
franchisor's trade name, trademark, service mark, logotype, advertising, or
other commercial symbol or related characteristics;
(2) in which the franchisor and franchisee have a
community of interest in the marketing of goods or services at wholesale,
retail, by lease, agreement, or otherwise; and
(3) for which the franchisee pays, directly or
indirectly, a franchise fee; or
(b) a contract, lease, or other agreement, either
express or implied, whether oral or written, for a definite or indefinite
period, between two or more persons, whereby the franchisee is granted the right
to market motor vehicle fuel using the franchisor's
trade name, trademark, service mark, logotype, advertising, or other commercial
symbol or related characteristics; or
(c) the sale or lease of any products, equipment,
chattels, supplies, or services to the purchaser, other than the sale of sales
demonstration equipment, materials or samples for a total price of $500 or less
to any one person, for the purpose of enabling the purchaser to start a business
and in which the seller:
(1) represents that the seller, lessor, or an affiliate
thereof will provide locations or assist the purchaser in finding locations for
the use or operation of vending machines, racks, display cases, or similar
devices, or currency operated amusement machines or devices, on premises neither
owned or leased by the purchaser or seller; or
(2) represents that the seller will purchase any or all
products made, produced, fabricated, grown, bred, or modified by the purchaser
using, in whole or in part, the supplies, services, or chattels sold to the
purchaser; or
(3) guarantees that the purchaser will derive income
from the business which exceeds the price paid to the seller; or
(d) an oral or written contract or agreement, either
expressed or implied, for a definite or indefinite period, between two or more
persons, under which a manufacturer, selling security systems through dealers or
distributors in this state, requires regular payments from the distributor or
dealer as royalties or residuals for products purchased and paid for by the
dealer or distributor.
(e) "Franchise" does not include any business which is
operated under a lease or license on the premises of the lessor or licensor as
long as such business is incidental to the business conducted by the lessor or
licensor on such premises, including, without limitation, leased departments,
licensed departments, and concessions.
(f) "Franchise" does not include any contract, lease or
other agreement whereby the franchisee is required to pay less than $100 on an
annual basis, except those franchises identified in paragraph (b).
(g) "Franchise" does not include a contract, lease or
other agreement between a new motor vehicle manufacturer, distributor, or
factory branch and a franchisee whereby the franchisee is granted the right to
market automobiles, motorcycles, trucks, truck tractors, or self-propelled motor
homes or campers if the foregoing are designed primarily for the transportation
of persons or property on public highways."
Renumber the sections in sequence and correct internal
references
Amend the title accordingly
The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.
Milbert moved to amend S. F. No. 501, the unofficial
engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 37, after line 31, insert:
"Sec. 49. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 333.01, is
amended to read:
333.01 [COMMERCIAL ASSUMED NAMES Subdivision 1.
[CERTIFICATE.] No person shall hereafter carry on or conduct or transact a
commercial business in this state under any designation, name, or style, which
does not set forth the true name of every person interested in such business
unless such person shall file in the office of the secretary of state, a
certificate setting forth the name and business address under which the business
is conducted or transacted, or is to be conducted or transacted, and the true
name of each person conducting or transacting the same, with the address of such
person. The name of the business must not include any of the following phrases
or their abbreviations: corporation, incorporated, limited, chartered,
professional cooperative, association, limited partnership, limited liability
company, professional limited liability company, limited liability partnership,
or professional limited liability partnership, except to the extent that an
entity filing a certificate would be authorized to use the phrase or
abbreviation. The certificate shall be executed by one of the persons
conducting, or intending to conduct, the business. The certificate shall be
published after it has been filed with the secretary of state in a qualified
newspaper in the county in which the person has a principal or registered office
for two successive issues.
Subd. 2. [INTENTIONAL
MISREPRESENTATION PROHIBITED.] No person shall use an
assumed or fictitious name in the conduct of its business to intentionally
misrepresent its geographic origin or location.
Sec. 50. [333.065] [PENALTY FOR VIOLATION.]
A person who violates any
provision of sections 333.01 to 333.06 is subject to the penalties and remedies
provided in section 8.31.
The relief provided in this
section is in addition to the remedies or penalties otherwise available."
Page 40, after line 31, after the period, insert:
"Sections 49 and 50 are
effective the day following final enactment and apply to causes of action
arising from incidents occurring on or after that date."
Renumber the sections in sequence and correct internal
references
Amend the title accordingly
The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.
Entenza, Tunheim, Commers amd McElroy moved to amend S.
F. No. 501, the unofficial engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 28, line 2, delete everything after "lessee"
Page 28, delete line 3
Page 28, line 4, delete everything before the period
The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.
Davids and Tomassoni moved to amend S. F. No. 501, the
unofficial engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 3, after line 32, insert:
"Sec. 7. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 67A.231, is
amended to read:
67A.231 [DEPOSIT OF FUNDS; INVESTMENT; LIMITATIONS.]
The directors of any township mutual insurance company
may authorize the treasurer to invest any of its funds and accumulations in:
(a) Bonds, notes, mortgages, or other obligations
guaranteed by the full faith and credit of the United States of America and
those for which the credit of the United States is pledged to pay principal,
interest or dividends, including United States agency and instrumentality bonds,
debentures, or obligations;
(b) Bonds, notes, evidence of indebtedness, or other
public authority obligations guaranteed by this state;
(c) Bonds, notes, evidence of the indebtedness or other
obligations guaranteed by the full faith and credit of any county, municipality,
school district, or other duly authorized political subdivision of this state;
(d) Bonds or other interest bearing obligations, payable
from revenues, provided that the bonds or other interest bearing obligations are
at the time of purchase rated among the highest four quality categories used by
a nationally recognized rating agency for rating the quality of similar bonds or
other interest bearing obligations, and are not rated lower by any other such
agency; or obligations of a United States agency or instrumentality that have
been rated in one of the two highest categories established by the Securities
Valuation Office of the National Association of Insurance Commissioners. A
company may not invest more than 20 percent of its admitted assets in the
obligations of any one corporation. This is not applicable to bonds or other
interest bearing obligations in default as to principal;
(e) Investments in the obligations stated in paragraphs
(a), (b), (c), and (d), may be made either directly or in the form of securities
of, or other interests in, an investment company registered under the Federal
Investment Company Act of 1940. Investment company shares authorized pursuant to
this subdivision shall not exceed 20 percent of the company's surplus. These
obligations must be carried at the lower of cost or market on the annual
statement filed with the commissioner and adjusted to market on an annual basis;
(f) Loans upon improved and unencumbered real property
in this state worth at least twice the amount loaned thereon, not including
buildings, unless insured by property insurance policies payable to and held by
the security holder;
(g) Real estate, including land, buildings and fixtures,
located in this state and used primarily as home office space for the insurance
company;
(h) Demand or time deposits or savings accounts in
federally insured depositories located in this state to the extent that the
deposit or investment is insured by the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation,
Federal Savings and Loan Corporation, or the National Credit Union
Administration. An additional deposit not to exceed 50
percent of the township mutual insurance company's policyholder surplus may be
located in these depositories if covered by private deposit insurance written by
an insurer licensed by the department of commerce;
(i) Guarantee fund certificates of a mutual insurer
which reinsures the business of the township mutual insurance company. The
commissioner may by rule limit the amount of guarantee fund certificates which
the township mutual insurance company may purchase and this limit may be a
function of the size of the township mutual insurance company; and
(j) Up to $1,500 in stock of an insurer which issues
directors and officers liability insurance to township mutual insurance company
directors and officers."
Renumber the sections in sequence and correct internal
references
Amend the title accordingly
The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.
Davids and Mariani moved to amend S. F. No. 501, the
unofficial engrossment, as amended, as follows:
Page 3, after line 27, insert:
"Sec. 6. [45.0293] [REGULATION OF GROUP LIFE INSURANCE.]
The commissioner may waive all
or part of the requirements of section 61A.09, subdivision 3, if:
(1) all the premiums under the
group policy are paid by the group policyholder;
(2) the loans insured are first
real estate residential mortgage loans owned or guaranteed by the group
policyholder; or
(3) the group policy is in the
best interests of insured debtors."
Renumber the sections in sequence and correct internal
references
Amend the title accordingly
A roll call was requested and properly seconded.
Anderson, I., raised a point of order pursuant to rule
3.09 that the Davids and Mariani amendment was not in order. The Speaker ruled
the point of order not well taken and the Davids and Mariani amendment in order.
Anderson, I., raised a point of order pursuant to rule
3.10 that the Davids and Mariani amendment was not in order. The Speaker ruled
the point of order not well taken and the Davids and Mariani amendment in order.
The question recurred on the Davids and Mariani
amendment and the roll was called. There were 80 yeas and 52 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
326.98 326.991, and 386.61
to 386.78, unless the context indicates otherwise, the terms defined in this
section have the meanings given them.
(a) (1) to employ any device, scheme, or artifice to
defraud the other; or
(b) (2) to engage in any act, practice, or course of
business which operates or would operate as a fraud or deceit upon the other; or.
(c) (b) It is unlawful for an investment adviser to
knowingly sell any security to or purchase any security from a client while
acting as principal for the person's own account or knowingly effect any sale or
purchase of any security for the account of a client while acting as broker for
one other than the client, unless the person discloses to the client in writing
before the execution of the transaction the capacity in which the person is
acting and obtains the consent of the client to the transaction.
employee benefit plans, corporations with
a class of equity securities registered under section 12(b) or 12(g) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934,
small business investment companies, and government agencies or
instrumentalities, whether acting for themselves or as trustees with investment
control, or other institutional investors as are
designated by rule or order of the commissioner. buyers; or (2) that person has no place of business in this
state and during the preceding 12-month period has had fewer than six clients,
other than those in clause (1), who are residents of this state.
shall
expire or notice filing expires on December 31
of each year unless an application for renewal has been received by the
commissioner by November 15.
and establish limitations on aggregate
indebtedness of broker-dealers in relation to net capital., subject to the limitations of section 222 of the
Investment Advisers Act of 1940 which may include different requirements for
those investment advisers who maintain custody of clients' funds or securities
or who have discretionary authority over the funds or securities and those
investment advisers who do not.
up to $25,000, as the commissioner may prescribe subject to the
limitations of section 15 of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 for
broker-dealers and section 222 of the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 for
investment advisers and may by rule or order determine their conditions. Any
appropriate deposit of cash or securities shall be accepted in lieu of any bond
so required. No bond may be required of any broker-dealer whose net capital,
which may be defined by rule, exceeds $25,000 the amounts required by the commissioner. Every bond
shall provide for suit thereon by any person who has a cause of action under
section 80A.23 and, if the commissioner by rule or order requires, by any person
who has a cause of action not arising under sections 80A.01 to 80A.31. Every
bond shall provide that no suit may be maintained to enforce any liability on
the bond unless brought within three years after the sale or other act upon
which it is based.
or
.; or
pension or profit sharing trusts, or other
financial institutions or institutional buyers, or to broker-dealers, whether
the purchaser is acting for itself or in some fiduciary capacity; or
.; but
this exemption does not apply to a security issued by any of the foregoing that
is payable solely from payments to be received in respect of property or money
used under a lease, sale, or loan arrangement by or for a nongovernmental
industrial or commercial enterprise. Pursuant to section 106(c) of the
Secondary Mortgage Market Enhancement Act of 1984, Public Law Number 98-440,
this exemption does not apply to a security that is offered or sold pursuant to
section 106(a)(1) or (2) of that act.
pension or profit
sharing trust, or other financial institution or institutional buyer, or to
a broker-dealer, whether the purchaser is acting for itself or in some fiduciary
capacity.
registered licensed, or
exempt from registration licensure, in this state as a broker-dealer.
If the registration
statement relates to redeemable securities issued by an open end management
company or unit investment trust, as defined in the Investment Company Act of
1940, there shall be a filing fee of $100 for every application for
registration. There shall be an additional fee of 1/20 of one percent of the
maximum aggregate offering price at which the registered securities are to be
offered in this state. There shall be no maximum fee for securities registered
pursuant to this clause.
(c) When an application for
registration is withdrawn before the effective date or a preeffective stop order
is entered under section 80A.13, subdivision 1, all but the $100 filing fee
shall be returned. If an application to register securities is denied, the total
of all fees received shall be retained.
and
or a title company which is the appointed
agent of a title insurance company authorized to do business in this
state.; and
ACCOUNT
RECORDS ACCOUNTS.] (a) Each broker or closing agent shall maintain and
retain records of all trust funds and trust accounts. The commissioner may
prescribe information to be included in the records by appropriate rules.
75 90 classroom hours of courses. The courses must consist
of 60 75 hours of
general real estate appraisal principles and 15 hours related to standards of
professional appraisal practice and the provisions of this chapter.
165 120 classroom hours of
courses, including 15 hours related to the standards of professional appraisal
practice and the provisions of this chapter, with particular emphasis on the
appraisal of one to four unit residential properties.
165 180 classroom hours of courses, including 15 hours
related to the standards of professional appraisal practice and the provisions
of this chapter, with particular emphasis on the appraisal of nonresidential
properties.
A license under section
82B.11, subdivision 3, 4, or 5, may not be issued to a person who does not have
the equivalent of two years of experience in real property appraisal supported
by adequate written reports or file memoranda. As a
prerequisite for licensing as a registered real property appraiser or licensed
real property appraiser, an applicant must present evidence satisfactory to the
commissioner that the person has obtained 2,000 hours of experience in real
property appraisal.
for each
year for which experience is claimed by the applicant. Upon request, the
applicant shall make available to the commissioner for examination, a sample of
appraisal reports that the applicant has prepared in the course of appraisal
practice.
12-month 24-month period.
12-month 24-month period;
a building the permit to the commissioner who may bring an action
against the person.
the a sum of at least $20,000. An applicant
for a new or renewal license may request that the amount of the bond be reduced
to an amount not less than $5,000. This request may be granted upon a showing
that the total dollar amount received from debtors by the collection agency in
the preceding fiscal year did not exceed $30,000. A collection agency may
deposit cash in and with a depository acceptable to the commissioner in an
amount and in the manner prescribed and approved by the commissioner in lieu of
a bond.
: (i) a satisfaction or release of the mortgage has not
been executed and recorded within 60 days after the
date payment in full of the loan secured by the mortgage was sent in accordance
with a payoff statement furnished by the mortgagee or the mortgage servicer, and (ii) the title insurance company, its officer, or
agent has sent to the last known address of the mortgagee or the mortgage
servicer, at least 30 days prior to executing the certificate of release,
written notice of its intention to execute and record a certificate of release
in accordance with this section after the expiration of the 60-day period.
, and received by the mortgagee or mortgage servicer, as
evidenced by one or more of the following in the records of the title insurance
company or its agent:
(i) a bank check, certified
check, escrow account check from the title company or title insurance agent, or
attorney trust account check that has been negotiated by the mortgagee or
mortgage servicer; or
(ii) other documentary evidence
of payment to the mortgagee or mortgage servicer;
(7) a statement that more than
60 days have elapsed since the date payment in full was sent;
(8) a statement that after the
expiration of the 60-day period referred to in subdivision 2, the title
insurance company, its officer, or agent sent to the last known address of the
mortgagee or mortgage servicer, at least 30 days prior to executing the
certificate of release, notice in writing of its intention to execute and record
a certificate of release in accordance with this section, with an unexecuted
copy of the proposed certificate of release attached to the written notice;
and
(9) a statement that the title
insurance company, its officer, or agent has not received notification in
writing of any reason why the certificate of release should not be executed and
recorded after the expiration of the 30-day notice period referred to in
subdivision 2.
; CERTIFICATE.]
POINT OF ORDER
Anderson, B. | Entenza | Kraus | Mulder | Rifenberg | Trimble |
Bettermann | Farrell | Krinkie | Ness | Schumacher | Tuma |
Bishop | Finseth | Kuisle | Nornes | Seagren | Van Dellen |
Boudreau | Goodno | Larsen | Olson, M. | Seifert | Vickerman |
Bradley | Gunther | Leppik | Opatz | Sekhon | Weaver |
Broecker | Haas | Lindner | Osskopp | Stanek | Wejcman |
Chaudhary | Hausman | Macklin | Osthoff | Stang | Westfall |
Commers | Hilty | Mares | Paulsen | Sviggum | Westrom |
Daggett | Holsten | Mariani | Pawlenty | Swenson, D. | Wolf |
Davids | Kahn | McCollum | Paymar | Swenson, H. | Workman |
Dawkins | Kielkucki | McElroy | Pelowski | Sykora | |
Dehler | Knight | McGuire | Pugh | Tingelstad | |
Delmont | Knoblach | Milbert | Reuter | Tomassoni | |
Dempsey | Koppendrayer | Molnau | Rhodes | Tompkins | |
Those who voted in the negative were:
Abrams | Folliard | Johnson, A. | Lieder | Orfield | Smith |
Anderson, I. | Garcia | Johnson, R. | Long | Ozment | Solberg |
Bakk | Greenfield | Juhnke | Luther | Peterson | Tunheim |
Biernat | Greiling | Kalis | Mahon | Rest | Wagenius |
Carlson | Harder | Kelso | Marko | Rostberg | Wenzel |
Clark | Huntley | Kinkel | Mullery | Rukavina | Winter |
Dorn | Jaros | Koskinen | Munger | Skare | Spk. Carruthers |
Erhardt | Jefferson | Kubly | Murphy | Skoglund | |
Evans | Jennings | Leighton | Olson, E. | Slawik | |
The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.
S. F. No. 501, A bill for an act relating to commerce; providing powers and duties to the commissioner; regulating securities; modifying the real estate licensing exemption for closing agents; regulating real property appraisers; regulating residential building contractors and remodelers; modifying licensing requirements for collection agencies; regulating notaries public; making technical changes; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, sections 45.011, subdivision 1; 45.028, subdivision 1; 80A.04, subdivisions 3, 4, and by adding a subdivision; 80A.05, subdivisions 4, 5, and by adding a subdivision; 80A.06, subdivisions 1, 2, and 3; 80A.08; 80A.12, by adding a subdivision; 80A.14, subdivisions 3, 4, and by adding subdivisions; 80A.15, subdivisions 1 and 2; 80A.16; 80A.28, subdivisions 1 and 2; 80C.01, subdivision 4; 82.19, by adding a subdivision; 82.20, subdivision 15; 82.22, subdivision 13; 82.24, subdivision 5; 82B.13, subdivisions 1, 4, and 5; 82B.14; 82B.19, subdivision 1; 326.83, subdivisions 11 and 19; 326.84, subdivision 3; 326.85, by adding a subdivision; 326.921; 332.33, subdivision 1, and by adding a subdivision; 332.34; 359.061; and 359.071; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapters 45; 60K; and 80A; repealing Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 60K.07, subdivision 1.
The bill was read for the third time, as amended, and
placed upon its final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of the bill and
the roll was called. There were 123 yeas and 4 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Abrams | Evans | Kahn | Marko | Pelowski | Sykora |
Anderson, B. | Farrell | Kalis | McCollum | Peterson | Tingelstad |
Bakk | Finseth | Kelso | McElroy | Pugh | Tomassoni |
Bettermann | Folliard | Kielkucki | McGuire | Rest | Tompkins |
Biernat | Goodno | Kinkel | Milbert | Reuter | Trimble |
Boudreau | Greenfield | Knight | Molnau | Rhodes | Tuma |
Bradley | Greiling | Knoblach | Mulder | Rifenberg | Tunheim |
Broecker | Gunther | Koppendrayer | Mullery | Rostberg | Van Dellen |
Carlson | Haas | Koskinen | Munger | Rukavina | Vickerman |
Chaudhary | Harder | Kraus | Murphy | Schumacher | Weaver |
Clark | Hasskamp | Krinkie | Ness | Seagren | Wejcman |
Commers | Hausman | Kubly | Nornes | Seifert | Wenzel |
Daggett | Hilty | Kuisle | Olson, M. | Sekhon | Westfall |
Davids | Holsten | Larsen | Opatz | Skare | Westrom |
Dawkins | Huntley | Leighton | Orfield | Slawik | Winter |
Dehler | Jaros | Leppik | Osskopp | Solberg | Wolf |
Delmont | Jefferson | Lindner | Osthoff | Stanek | Workman |
Dempsey | Jennings | Luther | Ozment | Stang | Spk. Carruthers |
Dorn | Johnson, A. | Macklin | Paulsen | Sviggum | |
Entenza | Johnson, R. | Mahon | Pawlenty | Swenson, D. | |
Erhardt | Juhnke | Mariani | Paymar | Swenson, H. | |
Those who voted in the negative were:
Anderson, I. | Garcia | Skoglund | Smith |
The bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.
The Speaker called Trimble to the Chair.
S. F. No. 1328 was reported to the House.
Kubly moved to amend S. F. No. 1328 as follows:
Page 1, after line 20, insert:
"Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 216B.2422, subdivision 5, is amended to read:
Subd. 5. [BIDDING; EXEMPTION FROM CERTIFICATE OF NEED PROCEEDING.] (a) A utility may select resources to meet its projected energy demand through a bidding process approved or established by the commission. A utility shall use the environmental cost estimates determined under subdivision 3 in evaluating bids submitted in a process established under this subdivision.
(b) A certificate of need proceeding is not required for an electric power generating plant that has been selected in a bidding process approved or established by the commission, or such other selection process approved by the commission, to satisfy, in whole or in part, the wind power mandate of section 216B.2423 or the biomass mandate of section 216B.2424."
Renumber the sections in sequence and correct internal references
Amend the title accordingly
Anderson, I. | Finseth | Kahn | Milbert | Rest | Tingelstad |
Bakk | Folliard | Kalis | Molnau | Reuter | Tomassoni |
Bettermann | Garcia | Kelso | Mulder | Rhodes | Tompkins |
Biernat | Goodno | Kinkel | Mullery | Rostberg | Trimble |
Bishop | Greenfield | Koskinen | Munger | Rukavina | Tuma |
Boudreau | Greiling | Kraus | Murphy | Schumacher | Tunheim |
Carlson | Gunther | Kubly | Ness | Seagren | Van Dellen |
Chaudhary | Harder | Larsen | Nornes | Seifert | Vickerman |
Clark | Hasskamp | Leppik | Olson, E. | Sekhon | Wagenius |
Daggett | Hausman | Lieder | Opatz | Skare | Weaver |
Davids | Hilty | Long | Orfield | Skoglund | Wejcman |
Dawkins | Holsten | Luther | Osskopp | Slawik | Wenzel |
Delmont | Huntley | Macklin | Osthoff | Smith | Westfall |
Dempsey | Jaros | Mahon | Ozment | Solberg | Westrom |
Dorn | Jefferson | Mares | Pawlenty | Stanek | Winter |
Entenza | Jennings | Mariani | Paymar | Stang | Spk. Carruthers |
Erhardt | Johnson, A. | Marko | Pelowski | Sviggum | |
Evans | Johnson, R. | McCollum | Peterson | Swenson, D. | |
Farrell | Juhnke | McGuire | Pugh | Swenson, H. | |
Those who voted in the negative were:
Abrams | Commers | Knight | Kuisle | Rifenberg | Workman |
Anderson, B. | Dehler | Knoblach | McElroy | Sykora | |
Bradley | Haas | Koppendrayer | Olson, M. | Wolf | |
Broecker | Kielkucki | Krinkie | Paulsen | ||
The bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.
S. F. No. 739 was reported to the House.
Jennings moved to amend S. F. No. 739 as follows:
Page 1, line 29, delete "shall" and insert "may"
Page 2, line 25, after "December", delete "1" and insert "15"
Page 2, line 32, after "December", delete "1" and insert "15"
Page 3, line 5, delete "shall" and insert "may"
Anderson, I. | Farrell | Juhnke | Marko | Ozment | Solberg |
Bakk | Garcia | Kahn | McCollum | Paymar | Tomassoni |
Biernat | Greenfield | Kalis | McGuire | Peterson | Trimble |
Carlson | Greiling | Kinkel | Milbert | Pugh | Tunheim |
Chaudhary | Gunther | Kubly | Mullery | Rest | Wagenius |
Clark | Hasskamp | Leighton | Munger | Rukavina | Wejcman |
Dawkins | Hausman | Long | Murphy | Schumacher | Wenzel |
Dehler | Hilty | Luther | Opatz | Sekhon | Winter |
Entenza | Jaros | Mahon | Orfield | Skare | |
Evans | Johnson, R. | Mariani | Osthoff | Skoglund | |
Those who voted in the negative were:
Abrams | Erhardt | Koppendrayer | Mulder | Seagren | Van Dellen |
Anderson, B. | Finseth | Koskinen | Ness | Seifert | Vickerman |
Bettermann | Folliard | Kraus | Nornes | Slawik | Weaver |
Bishop | Goodno | Krinkie | Olson, E. | Smith | Westfall |
Boudreau | Haas | Kuisle | Olson, M. | Stanek | Westrom |
Bradley | Harder | Larsen | Osskopp | Stang | Wolf |
Broecker | Holsten | Leppik | Paulsen | Sviggum | Workman |
Commers | Huntley | Lieder | Pawlenty | Swenson, D. | Spk. Carruthers |
Daggett | Jennings | Lindner | Pelowski | Swenson, H. | |
Davids | Johnson, A. | Macklin | Reuter | Sykora | |
Delmont | Kielkucki | Mares | Rhodes | Tingelstad | |
Dempsey | Knight | McElroy | Rifenberg | Tompkins | |
Dorn | Knoblach | Molnau | Rostberg | Tuma | |
Journal of the House - 59th Day - Wednesday, May 14, 1997 - Top of Page 4202 |
|||||
Anderson, B. | Dorn | Johnson, R. | Macklin | Pawlenty | Stang |
Bakk | Entenza | Kalis | Mares | Pelowski | Sviggum |
Bettermann | Erhardt | Kielkucki | McCollum | Peterson | Swenson, D. |
Biernat | Evans | Kinkel | McElroy | Reuter | Swenson, H. |
Bishop | Farrell | Knoblach | Milbert | Rhodes | Sykora |
Boudreau | Folliard | Koppendrayer | Molnau | Rifenberg | Tingelstad |
Bradley | Goodno | Koskinen | Mulder | Rostberg | Tompkins |
Broecker | Gunther | Kraus | Murphy | Rukavina | Tuma |
Carlson | Haas | Krinkie | Ness | Schumacher | Van Dellen |
Chaudhary | Harder | Kubly | Nornes | Seagren | Vickerman |
Clark | Hilty | Kuisle | Olson, E. | Seifert | Weaver |
Daggett | Holsten | Larsen | Olson, M. | Skoglund | Westrom |
Davids | Huntley | Leppik | Opatz | Slawik | Winter |
Dawkins | Jefferson | Lieder | Osskopp | Smith | Wolf |
Delmont | Jennings | Lindner | Ozment | Solberg | Workman |
Dempsey | Johnson, A. | Luther | Paulsen | Stanek | Spk. Carruthers |
Those who voted in the negative were:
Abrams | Greenfield | Kahn | McGuire | Sekhon | Wejcman |
Anderson, I. | Greiling | Leighton | Mullery | Skare | Wenzel |
Commers | Hasskamp | Long | Munger | Tomassoni | Westfall |
Dehler | Hausman | Mahon | Orfield | Trimble | |
Finseth | Jaros | Mariani | Paymar | Tunheim | |
Garcia | Juhnke | Marko | Rest | Wagenius | |
The bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.
S. F. No. 234 was reported to the House.
Wejcman moved to amend S. F. No. 234 as follows:
Delete everything after the enacting clause and insert the following language of H. F. No.272, the third engrossment:
"Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 144.057, subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. [BACKGROUND STUDIES REQUIRED.] The commissioner of health shall contract with the commissioner of human services to conduct background studies of:
(1) individuals providing
services which have direct contact, as defined under section 245A.04,
subdivision 3, with patients and residents in hospitals, boarding care homes,
outpatient surgical centers licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58; nursing
homes and home care agencies licensed under chapter 144A; residential care homes
licensed under chapter 144B, and board and lodging establishments that are
registered to provide supportive or health supervision services under section
157.17.; and
(2) beginning July 1, 1999, all other employees in nursing homes licensed under chapter 144A, and boarding care homes licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58. A disqualification of an individual in this section shall disqualify the individual from positions allowing direct contact or access to patients or residents receiving services.
If a facility or program is licensed by the department of human services and subject to the background study provisions of chapter 245A and is also licensed by the department of health, the department of human services is solely responsible for the background studies of individuals in the jointly licensed programs.
Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 144A.46, subdivision 5, is amended to read:
Subd. 5. [PRIOR CRIMINAL CONVICTIONS.] (a) Before the
commissioner issues county sheriffs, and local chiefs of police shall, if
requested, provide the commissioner with criminal conviction data available from
local, state, and national criminal record repositories, including the criminal
justice data communications networka an
initial or renewal license and, as defined in the
home care licensure rules promulgated by the commissioner of health, an
owner or managerial official shall be required to disclose all criminal convictions. The commissioner may
adopt rules that may require a person who must disclose criminal convictions
under this subdivision to provide fingerprints and releases that authorize law
enforcement agencies, including the bureau of criminal apprehension and the
Federal Bureau of Investigation, to release information about the person's
criminal convictions to the commissioner and home care providers. The bureau of
criminal apprehension,
complete a
background study under section 144.057. No person may be involved in the
management, operation, or control of a provider, if the person has been
convicted of a crime that relates to the provision of home
care services or to the position, duties, or responsibilities undertaken by that
person in the operation of the home care provider, unless the person can provide
sufficient evidence of rehabilitation. The commissioner shall adopt rules for
determining whether a crime relates to home care services and what constitutes
sufficient evidence of rehabilitation. The rules must require consideration of
the nature and seriousness of the crime; the relationship of the crime to the
purposes of home care licensure and regulation; the relationship of the crime to
the ability, capacity, and fitness required to perform the duties and discharge
the responsibilities of the person's position; mitigating circumstances or
social conditions surrounding the commission of the crime; the length of time
elapsed since the crime was committed; the seriousness of the risk to the home
care client's person or property; and other factors the commissioner considers
appropriate disqualified under the provisions of
chapter 245A and Minnesota Rules, parts 9543.3000 to 9543.3090. Individuals
disqualified under these provisions can request a reconsideration, and if the
disqualification is set aside are then eligible to be involved in the
management, operation or control of the provider. For purposes of this section,
owners of a home care provider subject to the background check requirement are
those individuals whose ownership interest provides sufficient authority or
control to affect or change decisions related to the operation of the home care
provider. An owner includes a sole proprietor, a general partner, or any other
individual whose individual ownership interest can affect the management and
direction of the policies of the home care provider. For the purposes of this
section, managerial officials subject to the background check requirement are
those individuals who provide "direct contact" as defined in section 245A.04 or
those individuals who have the responsibility for the ongoing management or
direction of the policies, services, or employees of the home care provider.
Data collected under this subdivision shall be classified as private data under
section 13.02, subdivision 12.
(b) Employees, contractors, and volunteers of a home
care provider or hospice are subject to the background study required by section
144.057. These individuals shall be disqualified under the provisions of chapter
245A and Minnesota Rules, parts 9543.3000 to 9543.3090. Until October 1, 1997, grounds for disqualification shall
also include the crimes specified under Minnesota Rules, part 4668.0020, subpart
14, or a comparable crime or act in another jurisdiction. Nothing in this
section shall be construed to prohibit a home care provider from requiring
self-disclosure of criminal conviction information;
however, compliance with the provisions of section 144.057 constitutes
compliance with the provisions of Minnesota Rules, part 4668.0020, subpart
8.
(c) Notwithstanding the
provisions of Minnesota Rules, part 4668.0020, subparts 12, 13, and 15,
disqualifications under paragraph (b), removal from a direct care position, and
the process for reconsiderations shall be governed by the provisions of section
144.057.
(d) Unless superseded by the
provisions of section 144.057 or this section, the provisions of Minnesota
Rules, part 4668.0020, remain in effect.
(e) Termination of an employee in good faith reliance on information or records obtained under paragraph (a) or (b) regarding a confirmed conviction does not subject the home care provider to civil liability or liability for reemployment insurance benefits.
Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.02, subdivision 15, is amended to read:
Subd. 15. [RESPITE CARE SERVICES.] "Respite care services" means temporary services provided to a person due to the absence or need for relief of the primary caregiver, the person's family member or legal representative who is the primary caregiver and principally responsible for the care and supervision of the person. Respite care services are those that provide the level of supervision and care that is necessary to ensure the health and safety of the person. Respite care services do not include services that are specifically directed toward the training and habilitation of the person.
Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.02, subdivision 16, is amended to read:
Subd. 16. [SCHOOL AGE CHILD.] "School age child," for programs licensed or
required to be licensed as a child care center under Minnesota Rules, parts
9503.0005 to 9503.0170, means a child who is at least of sufficient age to
have attended the first day of kindergarten, or is eligible to enter
kindergarten within the next four months, but is younger than 13 years of age.
Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.02,
subdivision 17, is amended to read:
Subd. 17. [SCHOOL AGE CHILD CARE PROGRAM.] "School age
child care program" means a Sec. 6. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.03,
subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. [EXCLUSION FROM LICENSURE.] Sections 245A.01 to
245A.16 do not apply to:
(1) residential or nonresidential programs that are
provided to a person by an individual who is related unless the residential
program is a foster care placement made by a local social services agency or a
licensed child-placing agency, except as provided in subdivision 2a;
(2) nonresidential programs that are provided by an
unrelated individual to persons from a single related family;
(3) residential or nonresidential programs that are
provided to adults who do not abuse chemicals or who do not have a chemical
dependency, a mental illness, mental retardation or a related condition, a
functional impairment, or a physical handicap;
(4) sheltered workshops or work activity programs that
are certified by the commissioner of economic security;
(5) programs for children enrolled in kindergarten to
the 12th grade and prekindergarten special education in a school as defined in
section 120.101, subdivision 4, and programs serving children in combined
special education and regular prekindergarten programs that are operated or
assisted by the commissioner of children, families, and learning;
(6) nonresidential programs primarily for children that
provide care or supervision, without charge for ten or fewer days a year, and
for periods of less than three hours a day while the child's parent or legal
guardian is in the same building as the nonresidential program or present within
another building that is directly contiguous to the building in which the
nonresidential program is located;
(7) nursing homes or hospitals licensed by the
commissioner of health except as specified under section 245A.02;
(8) board and lodge facilities licensed by the
commissioner of health that provide services for five or more persons whose
primary diagnosis is mental illness who have refused an appropriate residential
program offered by a county agency. This exclusion expires on July 1, 1990;
(9) homes providing programs for persons placed there by
a licensed agency for legal adoption, unless the adoption is not completed
within two years;
(10) programs licensed by the commissioner of
corrections;
(11) recreation programs for children or adults that
operate for fewer than 40 calendar days in a calendar year or programs operated by a park and recreation board of a
city of the first class whose primary purpose is to provide social and
recreational activities to school age children, provided the program is approved
by the park and recreation board;
(12) programs operated by a school as defined in section
120.101, subdivision 4, whose primary purpose is to provide child care to
school-age children, provided the program is approved by the district's school
board;
(13) head start nonresidential programs which operate
for less than 31 days in each calendar year;
(14) noncertified boarding care homes unless they
provide services for five or more persons whose primary diagnosis is mental
illness or mental retardation;
(15) nonresidential programs for nonhandicapped children
provided for a cumulative total of less than 30 days in any 12-month period;
(16) residential programs for persons with mental
illness, that are located in hospitals, until the commissioner adopts
appropriate rules;
(17) the religious instruction of school-age children;
Sabbath or Sunday schools; or the congregate care of children by a church,
congregation, or religious society during the period used by the church,
congregation, or religious society for its regular worship;
(18) camps licensed by the commissioner of health under
Minnesota Rules, chapter 4630;
(19) mental health outpatient services for adults with
mental illness or children with emotional disturbance;
(20) residential programs serving school-age children
whose sole purpose is cultural or educational exchange, until the commissioner
adopts appropriate rules;
(21) unrelated individuals who provide out-of-home
respite care services to persons with mental retardation or related conditions
from a single related family for no more than 90 days in a 12-month period and
the respite care services are for the temporary relief of the person's family or
legal representative;
(22) respite care services provided as a home and
community-based service to a person with mental retardation or a related
condition, in the person's primary residence;
(23) community support services programs as defined in
section 245.462, subdivision 6, and family community support services as defined
in section 245.4871, subdivision 17; or
(24) the placement of a child by a birth parent or legal
guardian in a preadoptive home for purposes of adoption as authorized by section
259.47.
For purposes of clause (6), a building is directly
contiguous to a building in which a nonresidential program is located if it
shares a common wall with the building in which the nonresidential program is
located or is attached to that building by skyway, tunnel, atrium, or common
roof.
Sec. 7. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.04,
subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3. [BACKGROUND STUDY
OF THE APPLICANT.] (a) Before the commissioner issues a license, the
commissioner shall conduct a study of the individuals specified in paragraph
(c), clauses (1) to (5), according to rules of the commissioner.
Beginning January 1, 1997, the commissioner shall also
conduct a study of employees providing direct contact services for nonlicensed
personal care provider organizations described in paragraph (c), clause (5).
The commissioner shall recover the cost of these
background studies through a fee of no more than $12 per study charged to the
personal care provider organization.
Beginning August 1, 1997, and
notwithstanding Minnesota Rules, part 9543.0040, subparts 2, item A, and 3, the
commissioner shall conduct all background studies required under this chapter
for adult foster care providers who are licensed by the commissioner of human
services and registered under chapter 144D. The commissioner shall conduct these
background studies according to Minnesota Rules, parts 9543.3000 to
9543.3090.
The commissioner shall initiate
a pilot project to conduct up to 5,000 background studies under this chapter in
programs with joint licensure as home and community-based services and adult
foster care for people with developmental disabilities when the license holder
does not reside in the foster care residence.
(b) Beginning July 1, (c) The applicant, license holder, the bureau of
criminal apprehension, the commissioner of health and county agencies, after
written notice to the individual who is the subject of the study, shall help
with the study by giving the commissioner criminal conviction data and reports
about the maltreatment of adults substantiated under section 626.557 and the
maltreatment of minors in licensed programs substantiated under section 626.556.
The individuals to be studied shall include:
(1) the applicant;
(2) persons over the age of 13 living in the household
where the licensed program will be provided;
(3) current employees or contractors of the applicant
who will have direct contact with persons served by the facility, agency, or
program;
(4) volunteers or student volunteers who have direct
contact with persons served by the program to provide program services, if the
contact is not directly supervised by the individuals listed in clause (1) or
(3); and
(5) any person who, as an individual or as a member of
an organization, exclusively offers, provides, or arranges for personal care
assistant services under the medical assistance program as authorized under
sections 256B.04, subdivision 16, and 256B.0625, subdivision 19.
The juvenile courts shall also help with the study by
giving the commissioner existing juvenile court records on individuals described
in clause (2) relating to delinquency proceedings held within either the five
years immediately preceding the application or the five years immediately
preceding the individual's 18th birthday, whichever time period is longer. The
commissioner shall destroy juvenile records obtained pursuant to this
subdivision when the subject of the records reaches age 23.
For purposes of this section and Minnesota Rules, part
9543.3070, a finding that a delinquency petition is proven in juvenile court
shall be considered a conviction in state district court.
For purposes of this subdivision, "direct contact" means
providing face-to-face care, training, supervision, counseling, consultation, or
medication assistance to persons served by a program. For purposes of this
subdivision, "directly supervised" means an individual listed in clause (1),
(3), or (5) is within sight or hearing of a volunteer to the extent that the
individual listed in clause (1), (3), or (5) is capable at all times of
intervening to protect the health and safety of the persons served by the
program who have direct contact with the volunteer.
A study of an individual in clauses (1) to (5) shall be
conducted at least upon application for initial license and reapplication for a
license. The commissioner is not required to conduct a study of an individual at
the time of reapplication for a license or if the
individual has been continuously affiliated with a foster care provider licensed
by the commissioner of human services and registered under chapter 144D,
other than a family day care or foster care license, if: (i) a study of the
individual was conducted either at the time of initial licensure or when the
individual became affiliated with the license holder; (ii) the individual has
been continuously affiliated with the license holder since the last study was
conducted; and (iii) the procedure described in paragraph (d) has been
implemented and was in effect continuously since the last study was conducted.
For purposes of this section, a physician licensed under
chapter 147 is considered to be continuously affiliated upon the license
holder's receipt from the commissioners of health or human services of the
physician's background study results. For individuals who are required to
have background studies under clauses (1) to (5) and who have been continuously
affiliated with a foster care provider that is licensed in more than one county,
criminal conviction data may be shared among those counties in which the foster
care programs are licensed. A county agency's receipt of criminal conviction
data from another county agency shall meet the criminal data background study
requirements of this section.
The commissioner may also conduct studies on individuals
specified in clauses (3) and (4) when the studies are initiated by:
(i) personnel pool agencies;
(ii) temporary personnel agencies;
(iii) educational programs that train persons by
providing direct contact services in licensed programs; and
(iv) professional services agencies that are not
licensed and which contract with licensed programs to provide direct contact
services or individuals who provide direct contact services.
Studies on individuals in items (i) to (iv) must be
initiated annually by these agencies, programs, and individuals. Except for
personal care provider organizations, no applicant, license holder, or
individual who is the subject of the study shall pay any fees required to
conduct the study.
(1) At the option of the licensed facility, rather than
initiating another background study on an individual required to be studied who
has indicated to the licensed facility that a background study by the
commissioner was previously completed, the facility may make a request to the
commissioner for documentation of the individual's background study status,
provided that:
(i) the facility makes this request using a form
provided by the commissioner;
(ii) in making the request the facility informs the
commissioner that either:
(A) the individual has been continuously affiliated with
a licensed facility since the individual's previous background study was
completed, or since October 1, 1995, whichever is shorter; or
(B) the individual is affiliated only with a personnel
pool agency, a temporary personnel agency, an educational program that trains
persons by providing direct contact services in licensed programs, or a
professional services agency that is not licensed and which contracts with
licensed programs to provide direct contact services or individuals who provide
direct contact services; and
(iii) the facility provides notices to the individual as
required in paragraphs (a) to (d), and that the facility is requesting written
notification of the individual's background study status from the commissioner.
(2) The commissioner shall respond to each request under
paragraph (1) with a written or electronic notice to
the facility and the study subject. If the commissioner determines that a
background study is necessary, the study shall be completed without further
request from a licensed agency or notifications to the study subject.
(3) When a background study is being initiated by a
licensed facility or a foster care provider that is also
registered under chapter 144D, a study subject affiliated with multiple
licensed facilities may attach to the background study form a cover letter
indicating the additional facilities' names, addresses, and background study
identification numbers. When the commissioner receives such notices, each
facility identified by the background study subject shall be notified of the
study results. The background study notice sent to the subsequent agencies shall
satisfy those facilities' responsibilities for initiating a background study on
that individual.
(d) If an individual who is affiliated with a program or
facility regulated by the department of human services or department of health
or who is affiliated with a nonlicensed personal care provider organization, is
convicted of a crime constituting a disqualification under Minnesota Rules,
parts 9543.3000 to 9543.3090, the probation officer or corrections agent shall
notify the commissioner of the conviction. The commissioner, in consultation
with the commissioner of corrections, shall develop forms and information
necessary to implement this paragraph and shall provide the forms and
information to the commissioner of corrections for distribution to local
probation officers and corrections agents. The commissioner shall inform
individuals subject to a background study that criminal convictions for
disqualifying crimes will be reported to the commissioner by the corrections
system. A probation officer, corrections agent, or corrections agency is not
civilly or criminally liable for disclosing or failing to disclose the
information required by this paragraph. Upon receipt
of disqualifying information, the commissioner shall
provide the notifications required in subdivision 3a, as appropriate to agencies
on record as having initiated a background study or making a request for
documentation of the background study status of the individual. This paragraph
does not apply to family day care and child foster
care programs.
(e) The individual who is the subject of the study must
provide the applicant or license holder with sufficient information to ensure an
accurate study including the individual's first, middle, and last name; home
address, city, county, and state of residence for the past five years; zip code;
sex; date of birth; and driver's license number. The applicant or license holder
shall provide this information about an individual in paragraph (c), clauses (1)
to (5), on forms prescribed by the commissioner. By
January 1, 2000, for background studies conducted by the department of human
services, the commissioner shall implement a system for:
(1) electronic transmission of
background study information to the commissioner; and
(2) background study results to
the applicant or license holder.
The commissioner may request additional information of
the individual, which shall be optional for the individual to provide, such as
the individual's social security number or race.
(f) Except for child foster care, adult foster care, and
family day care homes, a study must include information related to names of
substantiated perpetrators of maltreatment of vulnerable adults that has been
received by the commissioner as required under section 626.557, subdivision 9c,
paragraph (i), and the commissioner's records relating to the maltreatment of
minors in licensed programs, information from juvenile courts as required in
paragraph (c) for persons listed in paragraph (c), clause (2), and information
from the bureau of criminal apprehension. For child foster care, adult foster
care, and family day care homes, the study must include information from the
county agency's record of substantiated maltreatment of adults, and the
maltreatment of minors, information from juvenile courts as required in
paragraph (c) for persons listed in paragraph (c), clause (2), and information
from the bureau of criminal apprehension. The commissioner may also review
arrest and investigative information from the bureau of criminal apprehension,
the commissioner of health, a county attorney, county sheriff, county agency,
local chief of police, other states, the courts, or the Federal Bureau of
Investigation if the commissioner has reasonable cause to believe the
information is pertinent to the disqualification of an individual listed in
paragraph (c), clauses (1) to (5). The commissioner is not required to conduct
more than one review of a subject's records from the Federal Bureau of
Investigation if a review of the subject's criminal history with the Federal
Bureau of Investigation has already been completed by the commissioner and there
has been no break in the subject's affiliation with the license holder who
initiated the background studies.
When the commissioner has reasonable cause to believe
that further pertinent information may exist on the subject, the subject shall
provide a set of classifiable fingerprints obtained from an authorized law
enforcement agency. For purposes of requiring fingerprints, the commissioner
shall be considered to have reasonable cause under, but not limited to, the
following circumstances:
(1) information from the bureau of criminal apprehension
indicates that the subject is a multistate offender;
(2) information from the bureau of criminal apprehension
indicates that multistate offender status is undetermined; or
(3) the commissioner has received a report from the
subject or a third party indicating that the subject has a criminal history in a
jurisdiction other than Minnesota.
(g) An applicant's or license holder's failure or
refusal to cooperate with the commissioner is reasonable cause to disqualify a subject, deny (h) The commissioner shall not consider an application
to be complete until all of the information required to be provided under this
subdivision has been received.
(i) No person in paragraph (c), clause (1), (2), (3),
(4), or (5) who is disqualified as a result of this section may be retained by
the agency in a position involving direct contact with persons served by the
program.
(j) Termination of persons in paragraph (c), clause (1),
(2), (3), (4), or (5), made in good faith reliance on a notice of
disqualification provided by the commissioner shall not subject the applicant or
license holder to civil liability.
(k) The commissioner may establish records to fulfill
the requirements of this section.
(l) The commissioner may not disqualify an individual
subject to a study under this section because that person has, or has had, a
mental illness as defined in section 245.462, subdivision 20.
(m) (n) When any background study
completed under this section shows any of the following: (i) a conviction of one
or more crimes listed in clauses (1) to (4); or (ii) the individual has admitted
to or a preponderance of the evidence indicates the individual has committed an
act or acts that meet the definition of any of the crimes listed in clauses (1)
to (4); or (iii) an administrative determination listed under clause (4), then
the individual shall be disqualified from any position allowing direct contact
with persons receiving services from the license holder:
(1) regardless of how much time
has passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed for the offense, and
unless otherwise specified, regardless of the level of the conviction, the
individual was convicted of any of the following offenses: sections 609.185
(murder in the first degree); 609.19 (murder in the second degree); 609.195
(murder in the third degree); 609.2661 (murder of an unborn child in the first
degree); 609.2662 (murder of an unborn child in the second degree); 609.2663
(murder of an unborn child in the third degree); 609.322 (solicitation,
inducement, and promotion of prostitution); 609.323 (receiving profit derived
from prostitution); 609.342 (criminal sexual conduct in the first degree);
609.343 (criminal sexual conduct in the second degree); 609.344 (criminal sexual
conduct in the third degree); 609.345 (criminal sexual conduct in the fourth
degree); 609.352 (solicitation of children to engage in sexual conduct); 609.365
(incest); felony offense under 609.377 (malicious punishment of a child);
617.246 (use of minors in sexual performance prohibited); 617.247 (possession of
pictorial representations of minors); or attempt or conspiracy to commit any of
these offenses as defined in Minnesota Statutes, or an offense in any other
state or country, where the elements are substantially similar to any of the
offenses listed in this clause;
(2) if less than 15 years have
passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed for the offense; and the
individual has received a felony conviction for a violation of any of these
offenses: sections 609.20 (manslaughter in the first degree); 609.205
(manslaughter in the second degree); 609.21 (criminal vehicular homicide and
injury); 609.215 (suicide); 609.221 to 609.2231 (assault in the first, second,
third, or fourth degree); repeat offenses under 609.224 (assault in the fifth
degree); 609.2242 and 609.2243 (domestic assault; sentencing; repeat domestic
assault); repeat offenses under 609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth
degree); 609.713 (terroristic threats); 609.235 (use of drugs to injure or
facilitate crime); 609.24 (simple robbery); 609.245 (aggravated robbery); 609.25
(kidnapping); 609.255 (false imprisonment); 609.561 (arson in the first degree);
609.562 (arson in the second degree); 609.563 (arson in the third degree);
repeat offenses under 617.23 (indecent exposure; penalties); repeat offenses
under 617.241 (obscene materials and performances; distribution and exhibition
prohibited; penalty); 609.71 (riot); 609.66 (dangerous weapons); 609.67 (machine
guns and short-barreled shotguns); 609.749 (harassment; stalking; penalties);
609.228 (great bodily harm caused by distribution of drugs); 609.2325 (criminal
abuse of a vulnerable adult); 609.2664 (manslaughter of an unborn child in the
first degree); 609.2665 (manslaughter of an unborn child in the second degree);
609.267 (assault of an unborn child in the first degree); 609.2671 (assault of
an unborn child in the second degree); 609.268 (injury or death of an unborn
child in the commission of a crime); 609.378 (neglect or endangerment of a
child); 609.324, subdivision 1 (other prohibited acts); 609.52 (theft); 609.2335
(financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult); 609.521 (possession of
shoplifting gear); 609.582 (burglary); 609.625 (aggravated forgery); 609.63
(forgery); 609.631 (check forgery; offering a forged check); 609.635 (obtaining
signature by false pretense); 609.27 (coercion); 609.275 (attempt to coerce);
609.687 (adulteration); 260.221 (grounds for termination
of parental rights); and chapter 152 (drugs; controlled
substance). An attempt or conspiracy to commit any of these offenses, as each of
these offenses is defined in Minnesota Statutes; or an offense in any other
state or country, the elements of which are substantially similar to the
elements of the offenses in this clause. If the individual studied is convicted
of one of the felonies listed in this clause, but the sentence is a gross
misdemeanor or misdemeanor disposition, the look-back period for the conviction
is the period applicable to the disposition, that is the period for gross
misdemeanors or misdemeanors; (3) if less than ten years have
passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed for the offense; and the
individual has received a gross misdemeanor conviction for a violation of any of
the following offenses: sections 609.224 (assault in the fifth degree); 609.2242
and 609.2243 (domestic assault); violation of an order for protection under
518B.01, subdivision 14; 609.3451 (criminal sexual conduct in the fifth degree);
repeat offenses under 609.746 (interference with privacy); repeat offenses under
617.23 (indecent exposure); 617.241 (obscene materials and performances);
617.243 (indecent literature, distribution); 617.293 (harmful materials;
dissemination and display to minors prohibited); 609.71 (riot); 609.66
(dangerous weapons); 609.749 (harassment; stalking; penalties); 609.224,
subdivision 2, paragraph (c) (assault in the fifth degree by a caregiver against
a vulnerable adult); 609.23 (mistreatment of persons confined); 609.231
(mistreatment of residents or patients); 609.2325 (criminal abuse of a
vulnerable adult); 609.233 (criminal neglect of a vulnerable adult); 609.2335
(financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult); 609.234 (failure to report
maltreatment of a vulnerable adult); 609.72, subdivision 3 (disorderly conduct
against a vulnerable adult); 609.265 (abduction); 609.378 (neglect or
endangerment of a child); 609.377 (malicious punishment of a child); 609.324,
subdivision 1a (other prohibited acts; minor engaged in prostitution); 609.33
(disorderly house); 609.52 (theft); 609.582 (burglary); 609.631 (check forgery;
offering a forged check); 609.275 (attempt to coerce); or an attempt or
conspiracy to commit any of these offenses, as each of these offenses is defined
in Minnesota Statutes; or an offense in any other state or country, the elements
of which are substantially similar to the elements of any of the offenses listed
in this clause. If the defendant is convicted of one of the gross misdemeanors
listed in this clause, but the sentence is a misdemeanor disposition, the
look-back period for the conviction is the period applicable to
misdemeanors;
(4) if less than seven years
have passed since the discharge of the sentence imposed for the offense; and the
individual has received a misdemeanor conviction for a violation of any of the
following offenses: sections 609.224 (assault in the fifth degree); 609.2242
(domestic assault); violation of an order for protection under 518B.01 (domestic
abuse act); violation of an order for protection under 609.3232 (protective
order authorized; procedures; penalties); 609.746 (interference with privacy);
609.79 (obscene or harassing phone calls); 609.795 (letter, telegram, or
package; opening; harassment); 617.23 (indecent exposure; penalties); 609.2672
(assault of an unborn child in the third degree); 617.293 (harmful materials;
dissemination and display to minors prohibited); 609.66 (dangerous weapons);
609.665 (spring guns); 609.2335 (financial exploitation of a vulnerable adult);
609.234 (failure to report maltreatment of a vulnerable adult); 609.52 (theft);
609.27 (coercion); or an attempt or conspiracy to commit any of these offenses,
as each of these offenses is defined in Minnesota Statutes; or an offense in any
other state or country, the elements of which are substantially similar to the
elements of any of the offenses listed in this clause; serious or recurring
maltreatment of a minor or vulnerable adult; failure to make required reports
under section 626.556, subdivision 3, or 626.557, subdivision 3, for incidents
in which: (i) the final disposition under section 626.556 or 626.557 was
substantiated maltreatment, and (ii) the maltreatment was recurring or serious;
or substantiated serious or recurring maltreatment of a minor under section
626.556 or of a vulnerable adult under section 626.557 for which there is a
preponderance of evidence that the maltreatment occurred, and that the subject
was responsible for the maltreatment. For the purposes of this section, serious
maltreatment means sexual abuse; maltreatment resulting in death; or
maltreatment resulting in serious injury which reasonably requires the care of a
physician whether or not the care of a physician was sought, including: bruises,
bites, skin laceration, or tissue damage; fractures; dislocations; evidence of
internal injuries; head injuries with loss of consciousness; extensive
second-degree or third-degree burns and other burns for which complications are
present; irreversible mobility or separation of teeth; injuries to the eyeball;
ingestion of foreign substances and objects that are harmful; near drowning; and
heat exhaustion or sunstroke. For purposes of this section, recurring
maltreatment means more than one incident of maltreatment for which there is a
preponderance of evidence that the maltreatment occurred, and that the subject
was responsible for the maltreatment.
Sec. 8. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.04,
subdivision 3a, is amended to read:
Subd. 3a. [NOTIFICATION TO SUBJECT AND LICENSE HOLDER OF STUDY RESULTS; DETERMINATION OF RISK OF HARM.] The commissioner
shall notify the applicant or license holder and the individual who is the
subject of the study, in writing or by electronic
transmission, of the results of the study. When the study is completed, a
notice that the study was undertaken and completed shall be maintained in the
personnel files of the program.
The commissioner shall notify the individual studied if
the information in the study indicates the individual is disqualified from
direct contact with persons served by the program. The commissioner shall
disclose the information causing disqualification and
instructions on how to request a reconsideration of the disqualification to
the individual studied. An applicant or license holder who is not the subject of
the study shall be informed that the commissioner has found information that
disqualifies the subject from direct contact with persons served by the program.
However, (a) The individual poses an
imminent risk of harm to persons served by the program where the individual
studied will have direct contact. If the commissioner determines that an
individual studied poses an imminent risk of harm to persons served by the
program where the individual studied will have direct contact, the individual
and the license holder shall be sent a notice of disqualification. The
commissioner shall order the license holder to immediately remove the individual
studied from direct contact. The notice to the individual studied shall include
an explanation of the basis of this determination.
(b) The individual poses a risk
of harm requiring continuous supervision while providing direct contact services
during the period in which the subject may request a reconsideration. If the
commissioner determines that an individual studied poses a risk of harm that
requires continuous supervision, the individual and the license holder shall be
sent a notice of disqualification. The commissioner shall order the license
holder to assure that the individual studied is within sight or hearing of
another staff person when providing direct contact services during the period in
which the individual may request a reconsideration of the disqualification. If
the individual studied does not submit a timely request for reconsideration, or
the individual submits a timely request for reconsideration, but the
disqualification is not set aside for that license holder, the license holder
will be notified of the disqualification and shall be ordered to immediately
remove the individual from any position allowing direct contact with persons
receiving services from the license holder.
(c) The individual does not pose
an imminent risk of harm or a risk of harm requiring continuous supervision
while providing direct contact services during the period in which the subject
may request a reconsideration. If the commissioner determines that an individual
studied does not pose a risk of harm that requires continuous supervision, only
the individual shall be sent a notice of disqualification. The license holder
shall be sent a notice that more time is needed to complete the individual's
background study. If the individual studied submits a timely request for
reconsideration, and if the disqualification is set aside for that license
holder, the license holder will receive the same notification received by
license holders in cases where the individual studied has no disqualifying
characteristic. If the individual studied does not submit a timely request for
reconsideration, or the individual submits a timely request for reconsideration,
but the disqualification is not set aside for that license holder, the license
holder will be notified of the disqualification and shall be ordered to
immediately remove the individual from any position allowing direct contact with
persons receiving services from the license holder.
Sec. 9. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.04,
subdivision 3b, is amended to read:
Subd. 3b. [RECONSIDERATION OF DISQUALIFICATION.] (a) The individual must submit the request for
reconsideration to the commissioner in writing. A
request for reconsideration for an individual who has been sent a notice of
disqualification under subdivision 3a, paragraph (a) or (b), must be submitted
within 30 calendar days of the disqualified individual's receipt of the notice
of disqualification. A request for
reconsideration for an individual who has been sent a
notice of disqualification under subdivision 3a, paragraph (c), must be
submitted within 15 calendar days of the disqualified individual's receipt of
the notice of disqualification. Removal of a disqualified individual from direct
contact shall be ordered if the individual does not request reconsideration
within the prescribed time, and for an individual who submits a timely request
for reconsideration, if the disqualification is not set aside. (1) the subject of the study
does not pose a risk of harm to any person served by the applicant or license
holder; or
(2) the information the
commissioner relied upon is incorrect or inaccurate. If the basis of a
reconsideration request is that a maltreatment determination or disposition
under section 626.556 or 626.557 is incorrect, and the commissioner has issued a
final order in an appeal of that determination or disposition under section
256.045, the commissioner's order is conclusive on the issue of
maltreatment.
(b) The commissioner may set aside the disqualification
under this section if the commissioner finds that
the information the commissioner relied upon is incorrect or the individual does
not pose a risk of harm to any person served by the applicant or license holder.
In determining that an individual does not pose a risk
of harm, the commissioner shall (c) Unless the information the commissioner relied on in
disqualifying an individual is incorrect, the commissioner may not set aside the
disqualification of an individual in connection with a license to provide family
day care for children, foster care for children in the provider's own home, or
foster care or day care services for adults in the provider's own home if:
(1) less than ten years have passed since the discharge
of the sentence imposed for the offense; and the individual has been convicted
of a violation of any offense listed in (2) regardless of how much time has passed since the
discharge of the sentence imposed for the offense, the individual was convicted
of a violation of any offense listed in sections 609.185 to 609.195 (murder in
the first, second, or third degree), 609.2661 to 609.2663 (murder of an unborn
child in the first, second, or third degree), a felony
offense under 609.377 ( (3) within the seven years preceding the study, the
individual committed an act that constitutes maltreatment of a child under
section 626.556, subdivision 10e, and that resulted in substantial bodily harm
as defined in section 609.02, subdivision 7a, or substantial mental or emotional
harm as supported by competent psychological or psychiatric evidence; or
(4) within the seven years preceding the study, the
individual was determined under section 626.557 to be the perpetrator of a
substantiated incident of In the case of any ground for disqualification under
clauses (1) to (4), if the act was committed by an individual other than the
applicant or license holder residing in the applicant's or license holder's
home, the applicant or license holder may seek reconsideration when the
individual who committed the act no longer resides in the home.
The disqualification periods provided under clauses (1),
(3), and (4) are the minimum applicable disqualification periods. The
commissioner may determine that an individual should continue to be disqualified
from licensure because the license holder or applicant poses a risk of harm to a
person served by that individual after the minimum disqualification period has
passed.
(d) The commissioner shall respond in writing or by electronic transmission to all reconsideration
requests for which the basis for the request is that the
information relied upon by the commissioner to disqualify is incorrect or
inaccurate within 30 working days of receipt of a request and all relevant
information. If the basis for the request is that the individual does not pose a
risk of harm, the commissioner shall respond to the request within 15
working days after receiving the request for reconsideration and all relevant information. If the disqualification
is set aside, the commissioner shall notify the applicant or license holder in
writing or by electronic transmission of the
decision.
(e) Except as provided in subdivision 3c, the
commissioner's decision to disqualify an individual, including the decision to
grant or deny a Sec. 10. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.04,
subdivision 3c, is amended to read:
Subd. 3c. [CONTESTED CASE.] If a disqualification is not
set aside, a person who Sec. 11. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.04,
subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4. [INSPECTIONS; WAIVER.] (a) Before issuing (1) an inspection of the physical plant;
(2) an inspection of records and documents;
(3) an evaluation of the program by consumers of the
program; and
(4) observation of the program in operation.
For the purposes of this subdivision, "consumer" means a
person who receives the services of a licensed program, the person's legal
guardian, or the parent or individual having legal custody of a child who
receives the services of a licensed program.
(b) The evaluation required in paragraph (a), clause (3)
or the observation in paragraph (a), clause (4) is not required prior to issuing
Sec. 12. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.04,
subdivision 5, is amended to read:
Subd. 5. [COMMISSIONER'S RIGHT OF ACCESS.] When the
commissioner is exercising the powers conferred by Persons served by the program have the right to refuse
to consent to be interviewed, photographed, or audio or videotaped. Failure or
refusal of an applicant or license holder to fully comply with this subdivision
is reasonable cause for the commissioner to deny the application or immediately
suspend or revoke the license.
Sec. 13. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.04,
subdivision 6, is amended to read:
Subd. 6. [COMMISSIONER'S EVALUATION.] Before granting,
suspending, revoking, or making The commissioner shall evaluate the results of the study
required in subdivision 3 and determine whether a risk of harm to the persons
served by the program exists. In conducting this evaluation, the commissioner
shall apply the disqualification standards set forth in rules adopted under this
chapter. Sec. 14. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.04,
subdivision 7, is amended to read:
Subd. 7. [ISSUANCE OF A LICENSE (1) the name of the license holder;
(2) the address of the program;
(3) the effective date and expiration date of the
license;
(4) the type of license;
(5) the maximum number and ages of persons that may
receive services from the program; and
(6) any special conditions of licensure.
(b) The commissioner may issue (1) the commissioner is unable to conduct the evaluation
or observation required by subdivision 4, paragraph (a), clauses (3) and (4),
because the program is not yet operational;
(2) certain records and documents are not available
because persons are not yet receiving services from the program; and
(3) the applicant complies with applicable laws and
rules in all other respects.
(c) A decision by the commissioner to issue a license
does not guarantee that any person or persons will be placed or cared for in the
licensed program. A license shall not be transferable to another individual,
corporation, partnership, voluntary association, other organization, or
controlling individual, or to another location. For
purposes of reimbursement for meals only, under the Child and Adult Care Food
Program, Code of Federal Regulations, title 7, subtitle B, chapter II,
subchapter A, part 226, relocation within the same county by a family day care
provider licensed under Minnesota Rules, parts 9502.0300 to 9502.0445, shall be
considered an extension of the license for a period of no more than 30 calendar
days or until the new license is issued, whichever occurs first, provided the
county agency has determined the family day care provider meets licensure
requirements at the new location. Unless otherwise specified by statute, all
licenses expire at 12:01 a.m. on the day after the expiration date stated on the
license. A license holder must apply for and be granted a new license to operate
the program or the program must not be operated after the expiration date.
Sec. 15. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.06,
subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. [CONTENTS OF CORRECTION ORDERS OR FINES.] (a) If the commissioner finds that the
applicant or license holder has failed to comply with an applicable law or rule
and this failure does not imminently endanger the health, safety, or rights of
the persons served by the program, the commissioner may issue a correction order
to or impose a fine on the applicant or license
holder. The correction order or fine must state:
(1) the conditions that constitute a violation of the
law or rule;
(2) the specific law or rule violated; (3) the time allowed to correct each violation; and
(4) if a fine is imposed, the
amount of the fine.
(b) Nothing in this section prohibits the commissioner
from proposing a sanction as specified in section 245A.07, prior to issuing a
correction order or fine.
Sec. 16. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.06,
subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3. [FAILURE TO COMPLY.] If Sec. 17. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.06,
subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4. [NOTICE OF FINE; (1) specify the parts of the
violation that are alleged to be in error;
(2) explain why they are in
error;
(3) include documentation to
support the allegation of error; and
(4) any other information
relevant to the fine or the amount of the fine.
The commissioner's disposition
of a request for reconsideration is final and not subject to appeal under
chapter 14.
Sec. 18. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.06,
subdivision 5, is amended to read:
Subd. 5. [FORFEITURE OF FINES.] The license holder shall
pay the fines assessed on or before the payment date specified in the
commissioner's order. If the license holder fails to fully comply with the
order, the commissioner shall issue a second fine or
suspend the license until the license holder complies. If the license holder
receives state funds, the state, county, or municipal agencies or departments
responsible for administering the funds shall withhold payments and recover any
payments made while the license is suspended for failure to pay a fine.
Sec. 19. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.06,
subdivision 5a, is amended to read:
Subd. 5a. [ACCRUAL OF FINES.] A license holder shall
promptly notify the commissioner of human services, in writing, when a violation
specified in an order to forfeit is corrected. Sec. 20. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.06,
subdivision 6, is amended to read:
Subd. 6. [AMOUNT OF FINES.] (1) the license holder shall forfeit (2) the license holder shall forfeit (3) the license holder shall forfeit For the purposes of this section, "occurrence" means
each Sec. 21. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.06,
subdivision 7, is amended to read:
Subd. 7. [RESPONSIBILITY FOR PAYMENT OF FINES.] When a
fine has been assessed, the license holder may not avoid payment by closing,
selling, or otherwise transferring the licensed program to a third party. In
such an event, the license holder will be personally liable for payment. In the
case of a corporation, each controlling individual is personally and jointly
liable for payment.
Fines for child care centers
shall be assessed according to this section.
Sec. 22. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.07,
subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. [SANCTIONS AVAILABLE.] In addition to
ordering forfeiture of fines, the commissioner may propose to suspend, revoke,
or make Sec. 23. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.07,
subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3. [SUSPENSION, REVOCATION, (a) If the license was suspended or revoked, the notice
must inform the license holder of the right to a contested case hearing under
chapter 14. The license holder may appeal an order suspending or revoking a
license. The appeal of an order suspending or revoking a license must be made in
writing by certified mail and must be received by the commissioner within ten
calendar days after the license holder receives notice that the license has been
suspended or revoked.
(b) If the license was made Sec. 24. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.08,
subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. [RECEIPT OF APPEAL; CONDUCT OF HEARING.]
Upon receiving a timely appeal or petition pursuant to Sec. 25. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.08,
subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. [CONDUCT OF HEARINGS.] At any hearing provided
for by Sec. 26. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.09,
subdivision 7, is amended to read:
Subd. 7. [REGULATORY METHODS.] (a) Where appropriate and
feasible the commissioner shall identify and implement alternative methods of
regulation and enforcement to the extent authorized in this subdivision. These
methods shall include:
(1) expansion of the types and categories of licenses
that may be granted;
(2) when the standards of another state or federal governmental agency or an
independent accreditation body have been shown to predict compliance with the
rules, the commissioner shall consider compliance with the governmental or accreditation standards to be
equivalent to partial compliance with the rules; and
(3) use of an abbreviated inspection that employs key
standards that have been shown to predict full compliance with the rules.
(b) The commissioner shall work with the commissioners
of health, public safety, administration, and children, families, and learning
in consolidating duplicative licensing and certification rules and standards if
the commissioner determines that consolidation is administratively feasible,
would significantly reduce the cost of licensing, and would not reduce the
protection given to persons receiving services in licensed programs. Where
administratively feasible and appropriate, the commissioner shall work with the
commissioners of health, public safety, administration, and children, families,
and learning in conducting joint agency inspections of programs.
(c) The commissioner shall work with the commissioners
of health, public safety, administration, and children, families, and learning
in establishing a single point of application for applicants who are required to
obtain concurrent licensure from more than one of the commissioners listed in
this clause.
(d) The commissioner may specify in rule periods of
licensure up to two years.
Sec. 27. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.11,
subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. [PERMITTED SINGLE-FAMILY RESIDENTIAL USE.]
Residential programs with a licensed capacity of six or fewer persons shall be
considered a permitted single-family residential use of property for the
purposes of zoning and other land use regulations, except that a residential
program whose primary purpose is to treat juveniles who have violated criminal
statutes relating to sex offenses or have been adjudicated delinquent on the
basis of conduct in violation of criminal statutes relating to sex offenses
shall not be considered a permitted use. This exception
shall not apply to residential programs licensed before July 1, 1995.
Programs otherwise allowed under this subdivision shall not be prohibited by
operation of restrictive covenants or similar restrictions, regardless of when
entered into, which cannot be met because of the nature of the licensed program,
including provisions which require the home's occupants be related, and that the
home must be occupied by the owner, or similar provisions.
Sec. 28. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.16,
subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. [INVESTIGATIONS.] (a) The county or private
agency shall conduct timely investigations of allegations of (b) If an investigation conducted under clause (a)
results in evidence that the commissioner should deny an application or suspend,
revoke, or make Sec. 29. [245A.22] [INDEPENDENT LIVING ASSISTANCE FOR
YOUTH.]
Subdivision 1. [INDEPENDENT
LIVING ASSISTANCE FOR YOUTH.] "Independent living
assistance for youth" means a nonresidential program that provides a system of
services that includes training, counseling, instruction, supervision, and
assistance provided to youth according to the youth's independent living plan,
when the placements in the program are made by the county agency. Services may
include assistance in locating housing, budgeting, meal preparation, shopping,
personal appearance, counseling, and related social support services needed to
meet the youth's needs and improve the youth's ability to conduct such tasks
independently. Such services shall not extend to youths needing 24-hour per day
supervision and services. Youths needing a 24-hour per day program of
supervision and services shall not be accepted or retained in an independent
living assistance program.
Subd. 2. [ADMISSION.] The license holder shall accept as clients in the
independent living assistance program only individuals specified under section
256E.115.
Subd. 3. [INDEPENDENT LIVING
PLAN.] Unless an independent living plan has been
developed by the local agency, the license holder shall develop a plan based on
the client's individual needs that specifies objectives for the client. The
services provided shall include those specified in this section and the services
specified under section 256E.115, subdivision 2, paragraph (a). The plan shall
identify the persons responsible for implementation of each part of the plan.
The plan shall be reviewed as necessary, but at least annually.
Subd. 4. [RECORDS.] The license holder shall maintain a record for each
client.
(a) [REQUIRED RECORDS.] For each client the record maintained by the license holder
shall document the following:
(1) admission information;
(2) the independent living
plan;
(3) delivery of the services
required of the license holder in the independent living plan;
(4) the client's progress toward
obtaining the objectives identified in the independent living plan; and
(5) a termination summary after
service is terminated.
(b) [MONEY RECORDS.] If the license holder manages the client's money, the
record maintained by the license holder shall also include the following:
(1) written permission from the
client or the client's legal guardian to manage the client's money;
(2) the reasons the license
holder is to manage the client's money; and
(3) a complete record of the use
of the client's money and reconciliation of the account.
Subd. 5. [SERVICE
TERMINATION PLAN.] The license holder, in conjunction
with the county agency, shall establish a service termination plan that
specifies how independent living assistance services will be terminated and the
actions to be performed by the involved agencies, including necessary referrals
for other ongoing services.
Subd. 6. [PLACE OF RESIDENCE
PROVIDED BY PROGRAM.] When a client's place of residence
is provided by the license holder as part of the independent living assistance
program, the place of residence is not subject to separate licensure.
Subd. 7. [GENERAL LICENSING
REQUIREMENTS APPLY.] In addition to the requirements of
this section, providers of independent living assistance are subject to general
licensing requirements of this chapter.
Sec. 30. [245B.01] [RULE CONSOLIDATION.]
This chapter establishes new
methods to ensure the quality of services to persons with mental retardation or
related conditions, and streamlines and simplifies regulation of services and
supports for persons with mental retardation or related conditions. Sections
245B.02 to 245B.07 establish new standards that eliminate duplication and
overlap of regulatory requirements by consolidating and replacing rule parts
from four program rules. Section 245B.08 authorizes the commissioner of human
services to develop and use new regulatory strategies to maintain compliance
with the streamlined requirements. Sections 245B.02 to 245B.07 remain in effect
until a rule is adopted to govern these services.
Sec. 31. [245B.02] [DEFINITIONS.]
Subdivision 1. [SCOPE.] The terms used in this chapter have the meanings given
them.
Subd. 2. [APPLICANT.] "Applicant" has the meaning given in section 245A.02,
subdivision 3.
Subd. 3. [CASE MANAGER.] "Case manager" means the individual designated by the
county board under rules of the commissioner to provide case management services
as delineated in section 256B.092 or successor provisions.
Subd. 4. [CONSUMER.] "Consumer" means a person who has been determined eligible
to receive and is receiving services or support for persons with mental
retardation or related conditions.
Subd. 5. [COMMISSIONER.] "Commissioner" means the commissioner of the department of
human services or the commissioner's designated representative.
Subd. 6. [DAY TRAINING AND
HABILITATION SERVICES FOR ADULTS WITH MENTAL RETARDATION OR RELATED CONDITIONS.]
"Day training and habilitation services for adults with
mental retardation or related conditions" has the meaning given in sections
252.40 to 252.46.
Subd. 7. [DEPARTMENT.] "Department" means the department of human services.
Subd. 8. [DIRECT SERVICE.]
"Direct service" means, for a consumer receiving
residential-based services, day training and habilitation services, or respite
care services, one or more of the following: supervision, assistance, or
training.
Subd. 9. [HEALTH SERVICES.]
"Health services" means any service or treatment
consistent with the health needs of the consumer, such as medication
administration and monitoring, medical, dental, nutritional, health monitoring,
wellness education, and exercise.
Subd. 10. [INCIDENT.] "Incident" means any serious injury as determined by
section 245.91, subdivision 6; accident; reports of a child or vulnerable adult
maltreatment; circumstances that involve a law enforcement agency; or a
consumer's death.
Subd. 11. [INDIVIDUAL
SERVICE PLAN.] "Individual service plan" has the meaning
given in section 256B.092 or successor provisions.
Subd. 12. [INDIVIDUAL WHO IS
RELATED.] "Individual who is related" has the meaning
given in section 245A.02, subdivision 13.
Subd. 13. [INTERMEDIATE CARE
FACILITY FOR PERSONS WITH MENTAL RETARDATION OR RELATED CONDITIONS OR ICF/MR.]
"Intermediate care facility" for persons with mental
retardation or related conditions or ICF/MR means a residential program licensed
to provide services to persons with mental retardation or related conditions
under section 252.28 and chapter 245A and a physical facility licensed as a
supervised living facility under chapter 144, which together are certified by
the department of health as an intermediate care facility for persons with
mental retardation or related conditions.
Subd. 14. [LEAST RESTRICTIVE
ENVIRONMENT.] "Least restrictive environment" means an
environment where services:
(1) are delivered with minimum
limitation, intrusion, disruption, or departure from typical patterns of living
available to persons without disabilities;
(2) do not subject the consumer
or others to unnecessary risks to health or safety; and
(3) maximize the consumer's
level of independence, productivity, and inclusion in the community.
Subd. 15. [LEGAL
REPRESENTATIVE.] "Legal representative" means the parent
or parents of a consumer who is under 18 years of age or a guardian,
conservator, or guardian ad litem authorized by the court, or other legally
authorized representative to make decisions about services for a consumer.
Subd. 16. [LICENSE.] "License" has the meaning given in section 245A.02,
subdivision 8.
Subd. 17. [LICENSE HOLDER.]
"License holder" has the meaning given in section
245A.02, subdivision 9.
Subd. 18. [PERSON WITH
MENTAL RETARDATION OR A RELATED CONDITION.] "Person with
mental retardation" means a person who has been diagnosed under section 256B.092
as having substantial limitations in present functioning, manifested as
significantly subaverage intellectual functioning, existing concurrently with
demonstrated deficits in adaptive behavior, and who manifests these conditions
before the person's 22nd birthday. A person with a "related condition" means a
person who meets the diagnostic definition under section 252.27, subdivision
1a.
Subd. 19. [PSYCHOTROPIC
MEDICATION USE CHECKLIST.] "Psychotropic medication use
checklist" means the checklist and manual developed as part of the Welch vs.
Gardebring Negotiated Settlement, United States District Court, District of
Minnesota, Fourth Division, No. 4-72 Civil 451, 1987, Part V, Section B, to
govern the administration of psychotropic medications. The commissioner of human
services may revise or update the psychotropic medication use checklist to
comply with legal requirements or to meet professional standards or guidelines
in the area of developmental disabilities. For the purposes of this chapter,
psychotropic medication means any medication prescribed to treat mental illness
and associated behaviors or to control or alter behavior. The major classes of
psychotropic medication are antipsychotic (neuroleptic), antidepressant,
antianxiety, antimania, stimulant, and sedative or hypnotic. Other miscellaneous
medications are considered to be a psychotropic medication when they are
specifically prescribed to treat a mental illness or to control or alter
behavior.
Subd. 20. [RESIDENTIAL-BASED
HABILITATION.] "Residential-based habilitation" means
care, supervision, and training provided primarily in the consumer's own home or
place of residence but also including community-integrated activities following
the individual service plan. Residential habilitation services are provided in
coordination with the provision of day training and habilitation services for
those persons receiving day training and habilitation services under sections
252.40 to 252.46.
Subd. 21. [RESPITE CARE.] "Respite care" has the meaning given in section 245A.02,
subdivision 15.
Subd. 22. [SERVICE.] "Service" means care, supervision, activities, or training
designed to achieve the outcomes assigned to the license holder.
Subd. 23. [SEMI-INDEPENDENT
LIVING SERVICES OR SILS] "Semi-independent living
services" or "SILS" has the meaning given in section 252.275.
Subd. 24. [VOLUNTEER.] "Volunteer" means an individual who, under the direction of
the license holder, provides direct services without pay to consumers served by
the license holder.
Sec. 32. [245B.03] [APPLICABILITY AND EFFECT.]
Subdivision 1.
[APPLICABILITY.] The standards in this chapter govern
services to persons with mental retardation or related conditions receiving
services from license holders providing residential-based habilitation; day
training and habilitation services for adults; semi-independent living services;
residential programs that serve more than four consumers, including intermediate
care facilities for persons with mental retardation; and respite care provided
outside the consumer's home for more than four consumers at the same time at a
single site.
Subd. 2. [RELATIONSHIP TO
OTHER STANDARDS GOVERNING SERVICES FOR PERSONS WITH MENTAL RETARDATION OR
RELATED CONDITIONS.] (a) ICFs/MR are exempt from:
(1) section 245B.04;
(2) section 245B.06,
subdivisions 4 and 6; and
(3) section 245B.07,
subdivisions 4, paragraphs (b) and (c); 7; and 8, paragraphs (a), clause (4),
and (b), clause (1).
(b) License holders also
licensed under chapter 144 as a supervised living facility are exempt from
section 245B.04.
(c) Residential service sites
controlled by license holders licensed under chapter 245B for home and
community-based waivered services for four or fewer adults are exempt from
compliance with Minnesota Rules, parts 9543.0040, subpart 2, item C; 9555.5505;
9555.5515, items B and G; 9555.5605; 9555.5705; 9555.6125, subparts 3, item C,
subitem (2), and 4 to 6; 9555.6185; 9555.6225, subpart 8; 9555.6245; 9555.6255;
and 9555.6265. The commissioner may approve alternative methods of providing
overnight supervision using the process and criteria for granting a variance in
section 245A.04, subdivision 9. This chapter does not apply to foster care homes
that do not provide residential habilitation services funded under the home and
community-based waiver programs defined in section 256B.092.
(d) The commissioner may exempt
license holders from applicable standards of this chapter when the license
holder meets the standards under section 245A.09, subdivision 7. License holders
that are accredited by an independent accreditation body shall continue to be
licensed under this chapter.
(e) License holders governed by
sections 245B.02 to 245B.07 must also meet the licensure requirements in chapter
245A.
(f) Nothing in this chapter
prohibits license holders from concurrently serving consumers with and without
mental retardation or related conditions provided this chapter's standards are
met as well as other relevant standards.
(g) The documentation that
sections 245B.02 to 245B.07 require of the license holder meets the individual
program plan required in section 256B.092 or successor provisions.
Sec. 33. [245B.04] [CONSUMER RIGHTS.]
Subdivision 1. [LICENSE
HOLDER'S RESPONSIBILITY FOR CONSUMERS' RIGHTS.] The
license holder must:
(1) provide the consumer or the
consumer's legal representative a copy of the consumer's rights on the day that
services are initiated and an explanation of the rights in subdivisions 2 and 3
within five working days of service initiation. Reasonable accommodations shall
be made by the license holder to provide this information in other formats as
needed to facilitate understanding of the rights by the consumer and the
consumer's legal representative, if any;
(2) document the consumer's or
the consumer's legal representative's receipt of a copy of the rights and an
explanation of the rights; and
(3) ensure the exercise and
protection of the consumer's rights in the services provided by the license
holder and authorized in the individual service plan.
Subd. 2. [SERVICE-RELATED
RIGHTS.] A consumer's service-related rights include the
right to:
(1) refuse or terminate services
and be informed of the consequences of refusing or terminating services;
(2) know, in advance, limits to
the services available from the license holder;
(3) know conditions and terms
governing the provision of services, including those related to initiation and
termination;
(4) know what the charges are
for services, regardless of who will be paying for the services, and be notified
of changes in those charges;
(5) know, in advance, whether
services are covered by insurance, government funding, or other sources, and be
told of any charges the consumer or other private party may have to pay; and
(6) receive licensed services
from individuals who are competent and trained, who have professional
certification or licensure, as required, and who meet additional qualifications
identified in the individual service plan.
Subd. 3. [PROTECTION-RELATED
RIGHTS.] The consumer's protection-related rights
include the right to:
(1) have personal, financial,
services, and medical information kept private, and be advised of the license
holder's policies and procedures regarding disclosure of such information;
(2) access records and recorded
information;
(3) be free from
maltreatment;
(4) be treated with courtesy and
respect for the consumer's individuality, mode of communication, and culture,
and receive respectful treatment of the consumer's property;
(5) voice grievances, know the
contact persons responsible for addressing problems and how to contact those
persons;
(6) any procedures for grievance
or complaint resolution and the right to appeal under section 256.045;
(7) know the name and address of
the state, county, or advocacy agency to contact for additional information or
assistance;
(8) assert these rights
personally, or have them asserted by the consumer's family or legal
representative, without retaliation;
(9) give or withhold written
informed consent to participate in any research or experimental treatment;
(10) have daily, private access
to and use of a noncoin- operated telephone for local calls and long-distance
calls made collect or paid for by the resident;
(11) receive and send
uncensored, unopened mail;
(12) marital privacy for visits
with the consumer's spouse and, if both are residents of the site, the right to
share a bedroom and bed;
(13) associate with other
persons of the consumer's choice;
(14) personal privacy; and
(15) engage in chosen
activities.
Sec. 34. [245B.05] [CONSUMER PROTECTION STANDARDS.]
Subdivision 1.
[ENVIRONMENT.] The license holder must:
(1) ensure that services are
provided in a safe and hazard-free environment when the license holder is the
owner, lessor, or tenant of the service site. All other license holders shall
inform the consumer or the consumer's legal representative and case manager
about any environmental safety concerns in writing;
(2) lock doors only to protect
the safety of consumers and not as a substitute for staff supervision or
interactions with consumers;
(3) follow procedures that
minimize the consumer's health risk from communicable diseases; and
(4) maintain equipment,
vehicles, supplies, and materials owned or leased by the license holder in good
condition.
Subd. 2. [LICENSED CAPACITY
FOR FACILITY-BASED DAY TRAINING AND HABILITATION SERVICES.] Licensed capacity of day training and habilitation service
sites must be determined by the amount of primary space available, the
scheduling of activities at other service sites, and the space requirements of
consumers receiving services. Primary space does not include hallways,
stairways, closets, utility areas, bathrooms, kitchens, and floor areas beneath
stationary equipment. A minimum of 40 square feet of primary space must be
available for each consumer who is engaged in a day training and habilitation
activity at the site for which the licensed capacity must be determined.
Subd. 3. [RESIDENTIAL
SERVICE SITES FOR MORE THAN FOUR CONSUMERS; FOUR-BED ICFS/MR.] Residential service sites licensed to serve more than four
consumers and four-bed ICFs/MR must meet the fire protection provisions of
either the Residential Board and Care Occupancies Chapter or the Health Care
Occupancies Chapter of the Life Safety Code (LSC), National Fire Protection
Association, 1985 edition, or its successors. Sites meeting the definition of a
residential board and care occupancy for 16 or less beds must have the emergency
evacuation capability of residents evaluated in accordance with Appendix F of
the LSC or its successors, except for those sites that meet the LSC Health Care
Occupancies Chapter or its successors.
Subd. 4. [MEETING FIRE AND
SAFETY CODES.] An applicant or license holder under
sections 245A.01 to 245A.16 must document compliance with applicable building
codes, fire and safety codes, health rules, and zoning ordinances, or document
that an appropriate waiver has been granted.
Subd. 5. [CONSUMER HEALTH.]
The license holder is responsible for meeting the health
service needs assigned to the license holder in the individual service plan and
for bringing health needs as discovered by the license holder promptly to the
attention of the consumer, the consumer's legal representative, and the case
manager. The license holder is required to maintain documentation on how the
consumer's health needs will be met, including a description of procedures the
license holder will follow for the consumer regarding medication monitoring and
administration and seizure monitoring, if needed. The medication administration
procedures are those procedures necessary to implement medication and treatment
orders issued by appropriately licensed professionals, and must be established
in consultation with a registered nurse, nurse practitioner, physician's
assistant, or medical doctor.
Subd. 6. [FIRST AID.] When the license holder is providing direct service and
supervision to a consumer who requires a 24-hour plan of care and receives
services at a site licensed under this chapter, the license holder must have
available a staff person trained in first aid, and, if needed under section
245B.07, subdivision 6, paragraph (d), cardiopulmonary resuscitation from a
qualified source, as determined by the commissioner.
Subd. 7. [REPORTING
INCIDENTS AND EMERGENCIES.] The license holder must
report the following incidents to the consumer's legal representative,
caregiver, and case manager within 24 hours of the occurrence, or within 24
hours of receipt of the information:
(1) the death of a consumer;
(2) any medical emergencies,
unexpected serious illnesses, or accidents that require physician treatment or
hospitalization;
(3) a consumer's unauthorized
absence; or
(4) any fires and incidents
involving a law enforcement agency.
Death or serious injury of the
consumer must also be reported to the commissioner and the ombudsman, as
required under sections 245.91 to 245.99.
Sec. 35. [245B.06] [SERVICE STANDARDS.]
Subdivision 1.
[OUTCOME-BASED SERVICES.] (a) The license holder must
provide outcome-based services in response to the consumer's identified needs as
specified in the individual service plan.
(b) Services must be based on
the needs and preferences of the consumer and the consumer's personal goals and
be consistent with the principles of least restrictive environment,
self-determination, and consistent with:
(1) the recognition of each
consumer's history, dignity, and cultural background;
(2) the affirmation and
protection of each consumer's civil and legal rights;
(3) the provision of services
and supports for each consumer which:
(i) promote community inclusion
and self-sufficiency;
(ii) provide services in the
least restrictive environment;
(iii) promote social
relationships, natural supports, and participation in community life;
(iv) allow for a balance between
safety and opportunities; and
(v) provide opportunities for
the development and exercise of age-appropriate skills, decision making and
choice, personal advocacy, and communication; and
(4) the provision of services
and supports for families which address the needs of the consumer in the context
of the family and support family self-sufficiency.
(c) The license holder must make
available to the consumer opportunities to participate in the community,
functional skill development, reduced dependency on care providers, and
opportunities for development of decision-making skills. "Outcome" means the
behavior, action, or status attained by the consumer that can be observed,
measured, and can be determined reliable and valid. Outcomes are the equivalent
of the long-range goals and short-term goals referenced in section 256B.092, and
any rules promulgated under that section.
Subd. 2. [RISK MANAGEMENT
PLAN.] The license holder must develop and document in
writing a risk management plan that incorporates the individual abuse prevention
plan as required in chapter 245C. License holders jointly providing services to
a consumer shall coordinate and use the resulting assessment of risk areas for
the development of this plan. Upon initiation of services, the license holder
will have in place an initial risk management plan that identifies areas in
which the consumer is vulnerable, including health, safety, and environmental
issues and the supports the provider will have in place to protect the consumer
and to minimize these risks. The plan must be changed based on the needs of the
individual consumer and reviewed at least annually.
Subd. 3. [ASSESSMENTS.] (a) The license holder shall assess and reassess the
consumer within stated time lines and assessment areas specified in the
individual service plan or as requested in writing by the case manager.
(b) For each area of assessment
requested, the license holder must provide a written summary, analysis, and
recommendations for use in the development of the individual service plan.
(c) All assessments must include
information about the consumer that is descriptive of:
(1) the consumer's strengths and
functional skills; and
(2) the level of support and
supervision the consumer needs to achieve the outcomes in subdivision 1.
Subd. 4. [SUPPORTS AND
METHODS.] The license holder, in coordination with other
service providers, shall meet with the consumer, the consumer's legal
representative, case manager, and other members of the interdisciplinary team
within 45 days of service initiation. Within ten working days after the meeting,
the license holder shall develop and document in writing:
(1) the methods that will be
used to support the individual or accomplish the outcomes in section 245B.06,
subdivision 1, including information about physical and social environments, the
equipment and materials required, and techniques that are consistent with the
consumer's communication mode and learning style specified as the license
holder's responsibility in the individual service plan;
(2) the projected starting date
for service supports and the criteria for identifying when the desired outcome
has been achieved and when the service supports need to be reviewed; and
(3) the names of the staff,
staff position, or contractors responsible for implementing each outcome.
Subd. 5. [PROGRESS REVIEWS.]
The license holder must participate in progress review
meetings following stated time lines established in the consumer's individual
service plan or as requested in writing by the consumer, the consumer's legal
representative, or the case manager, at a minimum of once a year. The license
holder must summarize the progress toward achieving the desired outcomes and
make recommendations in a written report sent to the consumer or the consumer's
legal representative and case manager prior to the review meeting. For consumers
under public guardianship, the license holder is required to provide quarterly
written progress review reports to the consumer, designated family member, and
case manager.
Subd. 6. [REPORTS.] The license holder shall provide written reports regarding
the consumer's status as requested by the consumer, or the consumer's legal
representative and case manager.
Subd. 7. [STAFFING
REQUIREMENTS.] The license holder must provide
supervision to ensure the health, safety, and protection of rights of each
consumer and to be able to implement each consumer's individual service plan.
Day training and habilitation programs must meet the minimum staffing
requirements as specified in sections 252.40 to 252.46 and rules promulgated
under those sections.
Subd. 8. [LEAVING THE
RESIDENCE.] As specified in each consumer's individual
service plan, each consumer requiring a 24-hour plan of care must leave the
residence to participate in regular education, employment, or community
activities. License holders, providing services to consumers living in a
licensed site, shall ensure that they are prepared to care for consumers
whenever they are at the residence during the day because of illness, work
schedules, or other reasons.
Subd. 9. [DAY TRAINING AND
HABILITATION SERVICE DAYS.] Day training and
habilitation services must meet a minimum of 195 available service days.
Subd. 10. [PROHIBITION.] Psychotropic medication and the use of aversive and
deprivation procedures, as referenced in section 245.825 and rules promulgated
under that section, cannot be used as a substitute for adequate staffing, as
punishment, or for staff convenience.
Sec. 36. [245B.07] [MANAGEMENT STANDARDS.]
Subdivision 1. [CONSUMER
DATA FILE.] The license holder must maintain the
following information for each consumer:
(1) identifying information that
includes date of birth, medications, legal representative, history, medical, and
other individual-specific information, and names and telephone numbers of
contacts;
(2) consumer health information,
including individual medication administration and monitoring information;
(3) the consumer's individual
service plan. When a consumer's case manager does not provide a current
individual service plan, the license holder shall make a written request to the
case manager to provide a copy of the individual service plan and inform the
consumer or the consumer's legal representative of the right to an individual
service plan and the right to appeal under section 256.045;
(4) copies of assessments,
analyses, summaries, and recommendations;
(5) progress review reports;
(6) incident and emergency
reports involving the consumer;
(7) discharge summary, when
applicable;
(8) record of other license
holders serving the consumer that includes a contact person and telephone
numbers, services being provided, services that require coordination between two
license holders, and name of staff responsible for coordination; and
(9) incidents involving verbal
and physical aggression between consumers and self-abuse affecting the
consumer.
Subd. 2. [ACCESS TO
RECORDS.] The license holder must ensure that the
following people have access to the information in subdivision 1:
(1) the consumer, the consumer's
legal representative, and anyone properly authorized by the consumer or the
legal representative of the consumer;
(2) the consumer's case
manager;
(3) staff providing direct
services to the consumer unless the information is not relevant to carrying out
the individual service plan; and
(4) the county adult foster care
licensor, when services are also licensed as an adult foster home. For purposes
of this section, "adult foster home" means a licensed residence which may be
operated for financial gain and which provides 24-hour foster care to no more
than four functionally impaired adult residents.
Subd. 3. [RETENTION OF
CONSUMER'S RECORDS.] The license holder must retain the
records required for consumers for at least three years following termination of
services.
Subd. 4. [STAFF
QUALIFICATIONS.] (a) The license holder must ensure that
staff is competent through training, experience, and education to meet the
consumer's needs and additional requirements as written in the individual
service plan. Staff qualifications must be documented. Staff under 18 years of
age may not perform overnight duties or administer medication.
(b) Delivery and evaluation of
services provided by the license holder to a consumer must be coordinated by a
designated person. The designated person or coordinator must minimally have a
four-year degree in a field related to service provision, and one year work
experience with consumers with mental retardation or related conditions, a
two-year degree in a field related to service provision, and two years of work
experience with consumers with mental retardation or related conditions, or a
diploma in community-based developmental disability services from an accredited
post-secondary institution and two years of work experience with consumers with
mental retardation or related conditions. The coordinator must provide
supervision, support, and evaluation of activities that include:
(1) oversight of the license
holder's responsibilities designated in the individual service plan;
(2) instruction and assistance
to staff implementing the individual service plan areas;
(3) evaluation of the
effectiveness of service delivery, methodologies, and progress on consumer
outcomes based on the condition set for objective change; and
(4) review of incident and
emergency reports, identification of incident patterns, and implementation of
corrective action as necessary to reduce occurrences.
(c) The coordinator is
responsible for taking the action necessary to facilitate the accomplishment of
the outcomes for each consumer as specified in the consumer's individual service
plan.
(d) The license holder must
provide for adequate supervision of direct care staff to ensure implementation
of the individual service plan.
Subd. 5. [STAFF
ORIENTATION.] (a) Within 60 days of hiring staff who
provide direct service, the license holder must provide 30 hours of staff
orientation. Direct care staff must complete 15 of the 30 hours orientation
before providing any unsupervised direct service to a consumer. If the staff
person has received orientation training from a license holder licensed under
this chapter, or provides semi-independent living services only, the 15-hour
requirement may be reduced to eight hours. The total orientation of 30 hours may
be reduced to 15 hours if the staff person has previously received orientation
training from a license holder licensed under this chapter.
(b) The 30 hours of orientation
must combine supervised on-the-job training with coverage of the following
material:
(1) review of the consumer's
service plans and risk management plan to achieve an understanding of the
consumer as a unique individual;
(2) review and instruction on
the license holder's policies and procedures, including their location and
access;
(3) emergency procedures;
(4) explanation of specific job
functions, including implementing objectives from the consumer's individual
service plan;
(5) explanation of
responsibilities related to chapter 245C; sections 626.556 and 626.557,
governing maltreatment reporting and service planning for children and
vulnerable adults; and section 245.825, governing use of aversive and
deprivation procedures;
(6) medication administration as
it applies to the individual consumer, from a training curriculum developed by a
health services professional described in section 245B.05, subdivision 5, and
when the consumer meets the criteria of having overriding health care needs,
then medication administration taught by a health services professional. Once a
consumer with overriding health care needs is admitted, staff will be provided
with remedial training as deemed necessary by the license holder and the health
professional to meet the needs of that consumer.
For purposes of this section,
overriding health care needs means a health care condition that affects the
service options available to the consumer because the condition requires:
(i) specialized or intensive
medical or nursing supervision; and
(ii) nonmedical service
providers to adapt their services to accommodate the health and safety needs of
the consumer;
(7) consumer rights; and
(8) other topics necessary as
determined by the consumer's individual service plan or other areas identified
by the license holder.
(c) The license holder must
document each employee's orientation received.
Subd. 6. [STAFF TRAINING.]
(a) The license holder shall ensure that direct service
staff annually complete hours of training equal to two percent of the number of
hours the staff person worked or one percent for license holders providing
semi-independent living services. If direct service staff has received training
from a license holder licensed under a program rule identified in this chapter
or completed course work regarding disability-related issues from a
post-secondary educational institute, that training may also count toward
training requirements for other services and for other license holders.
(b) The license holder must
document the training completed by each employee.
(c) Training shall address staff
competencies necessary to address the consumer needs as identified in the
consumer's individual service plan and ensure consumer health, safety, and
protection of rights. Training may also include other areas identified by the
license holder.
(d) For consumers requiring a
24-hour plan of care, the license holder shall provide training in
cardiopulmonary resuscitation, from a qualified source determined by the
commissioner, if the consumer's health needs as determined by the consumer's
physician indicate trained staff would be necessary to the consumer.
Subd. 7. [VOLUNTEERS.] The license holder must ensure that volunteers who provide
direct services to consumers receive the training and orientation necessary to
fulfill their responsibilities.
Subd. 8. [POLICIES AND
PROCEDURES.] The license holder must develop and
implement the policies and procedures in paragraphs (1) to (3).
(1) policies and procedures that
promote consumer health and safety by ensuring:
(i) consumer safety in emergency
situations as identified in section 245B.05, subdivision 7;
(ii) consumer health through
sanitary practices;
(iii) safe transportation, when
the license holder is responsible for transportation of consumers, with
provisions for handling emergency situations;
(iv) a system of recordkeeping
for both individuals and the organization, for review of incidents and
emergencies, and corrective action if needed;
(v) a plan for responding to and
reporting all emergencies, including deaths, medical emergencies, illnesses,
accidents, missing consumers, fires, severe weather and natural disasters, bomb
threats, and other threats;
(vi) safe medication
administration as identified in section 245B.05, subdivision 5;
(vii) psychotropic medication
monitoring when the consumer is prescribed a psychotropic medication, including
the use of the psychotropic medication use checklist. If the responsibility for
implementing the psychotropic medication use checklist has not been assigned in
the individual service plan and the consumer lives in a licensed site, the
residential license holder shall be designated; and
(viii) criteria for admission or
service initiation developed by the license holder;
(2) policies and procedures that
protect consumer rights and privacy by ensuring:
(i) consumer data privacy, in
compliance with the Minnesota Data Practices Act, chapter 13; and
(ii) that complaint procedures
provide consumers with a simple process to bring grievances and consumers
receive a response to the grievance within a reasonable time period. The license
holder must provide a copy of the program's grievance procedure and time lines
for addressing grievances. The program's grievance procedure must permit
consumers served by the program and the authorized representatives to bring a
grievance to the highest level of authority in the program; and
(3) policies and procedures that
promote continuity and quality of consumer supports by ensuring:
(i) continuity of care and
service coordination, including provisions for service termination, temporary
service suspension, and efforts made by the license holder to coordinate
services with other vendors who also provide support to the consumer. The policy
must include the following requirements:
(A) the license holder must
notify the consumer or consumer's legal representative and the consumer's case
manager in writing of the intended termination or temporary service suspension
and the consumer's right to seek a temporary order staying the termination or
suspension of service according to the procedures in section 256.045,
subdivision 4a or 6e;
(B) notice of the proposed
termination of services must be given at least 60 days before the proposed
termination is to become effective, unless services are temporarily suspended
according to the license holder's written temporary service suspension
procedures, in which case notice must be given as soon as possible;
(C) the license holder must
provide information requested by the consumer or consumer's legal representative
or case manager when services are temporarily suspended or upon notice of
termination;
(D) use of temporary service
suspension procedures are restricted to situations in which the consumer's
behavior causes immediate and serious danger to the health and safety of the
individual or others;
(E) prior to giving notice of
service termination or temporary service suspension, the license holder must
document actions taken to minimize or eliminate the need for service termination
or temporary service suspension; and
(F) during the period of
temporary service suspension, the license holder will work with the appropriate
county agency to develop reasonable alternatives to protect the individual and
others; and
(ii) quality services measured
through a program evaluation process including regular evaluations of consumer
satisfaction and sharing the results of the evaluations with the consumers and
legal representatives.
Subd. 9. [AVAILABILITY OF
CURRENT WRITTEN POLICIES AND PROCEDURES.] The license
holder must:
(1) review and update, as
needed, the written policies and procedures in this subdivision and inform all
consumers or the consumer's legal representatives, case managers, and employees
of the revised policies and procedures when they affect the service
provision;
(2) inform consumers or the
consumer's legal representatives of the written policies and procedures in this
subdivision upon service initiation. Copies must be available to consumers or
the consumer's legal representatives, case managers, the county where services
are located, and the commissioner upon request; and
(3) document and maintain
relevant information related to the policies and procedures in this
subdivision.
Subd. 10. [CONSUMER FUNDS.]
(a) The license holder must ensure that consumers retain
the use and availability of personal funds or property unless restrictions are
justified in the consumer's individual service plan.
(b) The license holder must
ensure separation of resident funds from funds of the license holder, the
residential program, or program staff.
(c) Whenever the license holder
assists a consumer with the safekeeping of funds or other property, the license
holder must:
(1) document receipt and
disbursement of the consumer's funds or the property, and include the signature
of the consumer, conservator, or payee;
(2) provide a statement at least
quarterly itemizing receipts and disbursements of resident funds or other
property; and
(3) return to the consumer upon
the consumer's request, funds and property in the license holder's possession
subject to restrictions in the consumer's individual service plan, as soon as
possible, but no later than three working days after the date of the
request.
(d) License holders and program
staff must not:
(1) borrow money from a
consumer;
(2) purchase personal items from
a consumer;
(3) sell merchandise or personal
services to a consumer;
(4) require a resident to
purchase items for which the license holder is eligible for reimbursement;
or
(5) use resident funds in a
manner that would violate section 256B.04, or any rules promulgated under that
section.
Subd. 11. [TRAVEL TIME TO
AND FROM A DAY TRAINING AND HABILITATION SITE.] Except
in unusual circumstances, the license holder must not transport a consumer
receiving services for longer than one hour per one-way trip.
Subd. 12. [SEPARATE LICENSE
REQUIRED FOR SEPARATE SITES.] The license holder shall
apply for separate licenses for each day training and habilitation service site
owned or leased by the license holder at which persons receiving services and
the provider's employees who provide training and habilitation services are
present for a cumulative total of more than 30 days within any 12-month period,
and for each residential service site.
Subd. 13. [VARIANCE.] The commissioner may grant a variance to any of the
requirements in sections 245B.02 to 245B.07 except subdivision 8(1)(vii), or
provisions governing data practices and information rights of consumers if the
conditions in section 245A.04, subdivision 9 are met. Upon the request of the
license holder, the commissioner shall continue variances from the standards in
this chapter previously granted under Minnesota Rules that are repealed as a
result of this chapter. The commissioner may approve variances for a license
holder on a program, geographic, or organizational basis.
Sec. 37. [245B.08] [NEW REGULATORY STRATEGIES.]
Subdivision 1. [ALTERNATIVE
METHODS OF DETERMINING COMPLIANCE.] (a) In addition to
methods specified in chapter 245A, the commissioner may use alternative methods
and new regulatory strategies to determine compliance with this section. The
commissioner may use sampling techniques to ensure compliance with this section.
Notwithstanding section 245A.09, subdivision 7, paragraph (d), the commissioner
may also extend periods of licensure, not to exceed five years, for license
holders who have demonstrated substantial and consistent compliance with
sections 245B.02 to 245B.07 and have consistently maintained the health and
safety of consumers and have demonstrated by alternative methods in paragraph
(b) that they meet or exceed the requirements of this section. For purposes of
this section, "substantial and consistent compliance" means that during the
current licensing period:
(1) the license holder's license
has not been made conditional, suspended, or revoked;
(2) there have been no
substantiated allegations of maltreatment against the license holder;
(3) there have been no program
deficiencies that have been identified that would jeopardize the health or
safety of consumers being served; and
(4) the license holder is in
substantial compliance with the other requirements of chapter 245A and other
applicable laws and rules.
(b) To determine the length of a
license, the commissioner shall consider:
(1) information from affected
consumers, and the license holder's responsiveness to consumers' concerns and
recommendations;
(2) self assessments and peer
reviews of the standards of this section, corrective actions taken by the
license holder, and sharing the results of the inspections with consumers, the
consumers' families, and others, as requested;
(3) length of accreditation by
an independent accreditation body, if applicable;
(4) information from the county
where the license holder is located; and
(5) information from the license
holder demonstrating performance that meets or exceeds the minimum standards of
this chapter.
(c) The commissioner may reduce
the length of the license if the license holder fails to meet the criteria in
paragraph (a) and the conditions specified in paragraph (b).
Subd. 2. [ADDITIONAL
MEASURES.] The commissioner may require the license
holder to implement additional measures on a time-limited basis to ensure the
health and safety of consumers when the health and safety of consumers has been
determined to be at risk as determined by substantiated incidents of
maltreatment under sections 626.556 and 626.557. The license holder may request
reconsideration of the actions taken by the commissioner under this subdivision
according to section 245A.06.
Subd. 3. [SANCTIONS
AVAILABLE.] Nothing in this subdivision shall be
construed to limit the commissioner's authority to suspend, revoke, or make
conditional at any time a license under section 245A.07; make correction orders
and require fines for failure to comply with applicable laws or rules under
section 245A.06; or deny an application for license under section 245A.05.
Subd. 4. [EFFICIENT
APPLICATION.] The commissioner shall establish
application procedures for license holders licensed under this chapter to reduce
the need to submit duplicative material.
Subd. 5. [INFORMATION.] The commissioner shall make information available to
consumers and interested others regarding the licensing status of a license
holder.
Subd. 6. [IMPLEMENTATION.]
The commissioner shall seek advice from parties affected
by the implementation of this chapter.
Subd. 7. [DEEM STATUS.] The commissioner may exempt a license holder from
duplicative standards if the license holder is already licensed under chapter
245A.
Sec. 38. [245C.01] [LICENSE HOLDER REQUIREMENTS
GOVERNING MALTREATMENT OF VULNERABLE ADULTS.]
Subdivision 1. [LICENSE
HOLDER INTERNAL REPORTING AND INVESTIGATION OF MALTREATMENT.] All license holders serving vulnerable adults shall
establish and enforce written policies and procedures related to suspected or
alleged maltreatment, and shall orient clients and mandated reporters who are
under the control of the license holder to these procedures, as defined in
section 626.5572, subdivision 16.
(a) License holders must
establish policies and procedures allowing but not mandating the internal
reporting of alleged or suspected maltreatment. License holders shall ensure
that the policies and procedures on internal reporting:
(1) meet all the requirements
identified for the optional internal reporting policies and procedures in
section 626.557, subdivision 4a; and
(2) identify the primary and
secondary person or position to whom internal reports may be made and the
primary and secondary person or position responsible for forwarding internal
reports to the common entry point as defined in section 626.5572, subdivision 5.
The secondary person must be involved when there is reason to believe that the
primary person was involved in the alleged or suspected maltreatment.
(b) The license holder
shall:
(1) establish and maintain
policies and procedures to ensure that an internal review is completed when the
facility has reason to know that an internal or external report of alleged or
suspected maltreatment has been made. The review must include an evaluation of
whether related policies and procedures were followed, whether the policies and
procedures were adequate, whether there is a need for additional staff training,
and whether there is a need for any further action to be taken by the facility
to protect the health and safety of vulnerable adults;
(2) identify the primary and
secondary person or position who will ensure that, when required, internal
reviews are completed. The secondary person shall be involved when there is
reason to believe that the primary person was involved in the alleged or
suspected maltreatment; and
(3) document and make internal
reviews accessible to the commissioner upon the commissioner's request.
(c) The license holder shall
provide an orientation to the internal and external reporting procedures to all
persons receiving services. The orientation shall include the telephone number
for the license holder's common entry point as defined in section 626.5572,
subdivision 5. If applicable, the person's legal representative must be notified
of the orientation. The program shall provide this orientation for each new
person within 24 hours of admission, or for persons who would benefit more from
a later orientation, the orientation may take place within 72 hours.
(d) The license holder shall
post a copy of the internal and external reporting policies and procedures,
including the telephone number of the common entry point as defined in section
626.5572, subdivision 5, in a prominent location in the program and have it
available upon request to mandated reporters, persons receiving services, and
the person's legal representatives.
Subd. 2. [ABUSE PREVENTION
PLANS.] All license holders shall establish and enforce
ongoing written program abuse prevention plans and individual abuse prevention
plans as required under section 626.557, subdivision 14.
(a) The scope of the program
abuse prevention plan is limited to the population, physical plant, and
environment within the control of the license holder and the location where
licensed services are provided. In addition to the requirements in section
626.557, subdivision 14, the program abuse prevention plan shall meet the
requirements in clauses (1) to (5).
(1) The assessment of the
population shall include an evaluation of the following factors: age, gender,
mental functioning, physical and emotional health or behavior of the client; the
need for specialized programs of care for clients; the need for training of
staff to meet identified individual needs; and the knowledge a license holder
may have regarding previous abuse that is relevant to minimizing risk of abuse
for clients.
(2) The assessment of the
physical plant where the licensed services are provided shall include an
evaluation of the following factors: the condition and design of the building as
it relates to the safety of the clients; and the existence of areas in the
building which are difficult to supervise.
(3) The assessment of the
environment for each facility and for each site when living arrangements are
provided by the agency shall include an evaluation of the following factors: the
location of the program in a particular neighborhood or community; the type of
grounds and terrain surrounding the building; the type of internal programming;
and the program's staffing patterns.
(4) The license holder shall
provide an orientation to the program abuse prevention plan for clients
receiving services. If applicable, the client's legal representative must be
notified of the orientation. The license holder shall provide this orientation
for each new person within 24 hours of admission, or for persons who would
benefit more from a later orientation, the orientation may take place within 72
hours.
(5) The license holder's
governing body shall review the plan at least annually using the assessment
factors in the plan and any substantiated maltreatment findings that occurred
since the last review. The governing body shall revise the plan, if necessary,
to reflect the review results.
(6) A copy of the program abuse
prevention plan shall be posted in a prominent location in the program and be
available upon request to mandated reporters, persons receiving services, and
legal representatives.
(b) In addition to the
requirements in section 626.557, subdivision 14, the individual abuse prevention
plan shall meet the requirements in clauses (1) and (2).
(1) The plan shall include a
statement of measures that will be taken to minimize the risk of abuse to the
vulnerable adult when the individual assessment required in section 626.557,
subdivision 14, paragraph (b), indicates the need for measures in addition to
the specific measures identified in the program abuse prevention plan. The
measures shall include the specific actions the program will take to minimize
the risk of abuse within the scope of the licensed services, and will identify
referrals made when the vulnerable adult is susceptible to abuse outside the
scope or control of the licensed services. When the assessment indicates that
the vulnerable adult does not need specific risk reduction measures in addition
to those identified in the program abuse prevention plan, the individual abuse
prevention plan shall document this determination.
(2) An individual abuse
prevention plan shall be developed for each new person as part of the initial
individual program plan or service plan required under the applicable licensing
rule. The review and evaluation of the individual abuse prevention plan shall be
done as part of the review of the program plan or service plan. The person
receiving services shall participate in the development of the individual abuse
prevention plan to the full extent of the person's abilities. If applicable, the
person's legal representative shall be given the opportunity to participate with
or for the person in the development of the plan. The interdisciplinary team
shall document the review of all abuse prevention plans at least annually, using
the individual assessment and any reports of abuse relating to the person. The
plan shall be revised to reflect the results of this review.
Subd. 3. [ORIENTATION OF
MANDATED REPORTERS.] The license holder shall ensure
that each new mandated reporter, as defined in section 626.5572, subdivision 16,
who is under the control of the license holder, receives an orientation within
72 hours of first providing direct contact services as defined in section
245A.04, subdivision 3, to a vulnerable adult and annually thereafter. The
orientation and annual review shall inform the mandated reporters of the
reporting requirements and definitions in sections 626.557 and 626.5572, the
requirements of this section, the license holder's program abuse prevention
plan, and all internal policies and procedures related to the prevention and
reporting of maltreatment of individuals receiving services.
Sec. 39. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 256E.115, is
amended to read:
256E.115 [SAFE HOUSES Subdivision 1. [DEFINITIONS;
COMMISSIONER DUTIES.] (a) [DEFINITIONS.] The following definitions apply to this section:
(1) "Targeted youth" means
children who are ages 16 to 21 and are in out-of-home placement, leaving
out-of-home placement, at risk of becoming homeless, or homeless.
(2) "Safe house" means a
facility providing emergency housing for homeless targeted youth with the goal
of reuniting the family if appropriate and possible.
(3) "Transitional housing" means
congregate or cooperative housing for targeted youth who are transitioning to
independent living.
(4) "Independent living
assistance" means services provided to assist targeted youth who are not living
in a safe house or transitional housing to make the transition to independent
living.
(b) [COMMISSIONER DUTIES.]
The commissioner shall issue a request for proposals from organizations that are
knowledgeable about the needs of Subd. 2. [ (1) counseling services for the youth, and their
families, if appropriate, on site, to help with problems that (2) job services to help youth find employment in
addition to creating jobs on site, including food service, maintenance, child
care, and tutoring;
(3) health services that are confidential and provide
preventive care services, crisis referrals, and other necessary health care
services;
(4) living skills training to help youth learn how to
care for themselves; and
(5) education services that help youth enroll in
academic programs, if they are currently not in a program.
(b) [ADDITIONAL
PARTICIPATION REQUIREMENTS.] (1) Targeted youth who have
current drug or alcohol problems, a recent history of violent behaviors, or a
mental health disorder or issue that is not being resolved through counseling or
treatment are not eligible to receive the services described in subdivision
1.
(2) Targeted youth who are not
employed, participating in employment training, or enrolled in an academic
program are not eligible to receive transitional housing or independent living
assistance.
(c) [LICENSURE.] Providers of independent living assistance services must be
licensed under section 245A.22.
Sec. 40. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 364.09, is
amended to read:
364.09 [EXCEPTIONS.]
(a) This chapter does not apply to the licensing process
for peace officers; to law enforcement agencies as defined in section 626.84,
subdivision 1, paragraph (h); to fire protection agencies; to eligibility for a
private detective or protective agent license; to (b) This chapter does not apply to a school district or
to eligibility for a license issued or renewed by the board of teaching or the
state board of education.
(c) Nothing in this section precludes the Minnesota
police and peace officers training board or the state fire marshal from
recommending policies set forth in this chapter to the attorney general for
adoption in the attorney general's discretion to apply to law enforcement or
fire protection agencies.
(d) This chapter does not apply to a license to practice
medicine that has been denied or revoked by the board of medical practice
pursuant to section 147.091, subdivision 1a.
Sec. 41. Laws 1995, chapter 158, section 7, is amended
to read:
Sec. 7. [RECOMMENDATIONS ON REGULATING CHILD CARE
PROGRAMS.]
The commissioner of human services shall review and make
recommendations to the legislature regarding what programs should be regulated
that provide child care for children, and the manner in which these programs
should be regulated.
The commissioner shall also
examine and make recommendations regarding the feasibility of permitting
worksite-based nonresidential child care programs serving 14 or fewer children
to be licensed under the family and group family day care standards.
The commissioner shall submit the recommendations by December 15, 1997, to the chairs of the house health
and human services committee and the health and human services finance division,
and Sec. 42. [CHILD CARE CENTERS; RULE AMENDMENTS.]
(a) The commissioner shall amend
Minnesota Rules, part 9503.0035, subpart 4, with regard to in-service training
of child care center staff as follows:
In-service training must be
completed within the license period for which it is required. In-service
completed by staff persons as required under this subpart shall be transferable
upon a staff person's change in employment to another child care program.
License holders shall record all staff in-service training on forms prescribed
by the commissioner.
(b) The commissioner shall amend
Minnesota Rules, part 9503.0005, subpart 25, so that "supervision" has the
following meaning:
(1) Except as provided in clause
(2), supervision occurs when a program staff person is within sight and hearing
of a child at all times so that the program staff person can intervene to
protect the health and safety of the child.
(2) When an infant is placed in
a crib room to sleep, supervision occurs when a staff person is within sight or
hearing of the infant. When supervision of a crib room is provided by sight or
hearing, the center must have a plan to address the other supervision
component.
(c) The commissioner shall amend
the definition of "experience" in Minnesota Rules, chapter 9503, to include paid
or unpaid employment serving children as teacher, assistant teacher, aide, or
student intern in a licensed child care center; in a public or nonpublic school;
or in a program licensed as a family day care or group family day care
provider.
Sec. 43. [UNLICENSED CHILD CARE PROVIDERS; INTERIM
EXPANSION.]
Notwithstanding Minnesota
Statutes, section 245A.03, subdivision 2, clause (2), until June 30, 1999,
nonresidential child care programs or services that are provided by an unrelated
individual to persons from two other unrelated families are excluded from the
licensure provisions of chapter 245A, provided that:
(1) the individual provides
services at any one time to no more than three children who are unrelated to the
individual; and
(2) no more than two of the
children who are unrelated to the individual are under the age of two.
Sec. 44. [FAMILY DAY CARE AND CHILD CARE CENTER
LICENSURE; INTERIM EXPANSION.]
Subdivision 1. [INTERIM AGE
GROUPINGS; FAMILY DAY CARE.] Notwithstanding Minnesota
Rules, part 9502.0315, subparts 22, 28 and 30, until June 30, 1998, for the
purposes of family day care and group family day care licensure the following
definitions apply:
(1) "Preschooler" means a child
who is at least 24 months old up to the age of being eligible to enter
kindergarten within the next four months.
(2) "Toddler" means a child who
is at least 12 months old but less than 24 months old, except that for purposes
of specialized infant and toddler family and group family day care, "toddler"
means a child who is at least 12 months old but less than 30 months old.
(3) "School age" means a child
who is at least of sufficient age to have attended the first day of
kindergarten, or is eligible to enter kindergarten within the next four months,
but is younger than 11 years of age.
Subd. 2. [INTERIM AGE
GROUPINGS AND RANGES; CHILD CARE CENTERS.] (a) A child
care center that intends to utilize one or more of the age groupings in
paragraph (b), must notify the commissioner in writing of this intent prior to
utilizing the grouping.
(b) Notwithstanding Minnesota
Rules, part 9503.0005, subpart 2, until June 30, 1998, for the purposes of child
care center licensure the following definitions of age category apply:
(1) "Infant" means a child who
is at least six weeks old but less than 12 months old.
(2) "Toddler" means a child who
is at least 12 months old but less than 24 months old, provided that no more
than three of every seven toddlers in the group are less than 18 months old.
(3) "Preschooler" means a child
who is at least 24 months old up to the age of being eligible to enter
kindergarten within the next four months, provided that no more than four of
every ten preschoolers in the group are less than 36 months old.
(4) "School age child" means a
child who is at least of sufficient age to have attended the first day of
kindergarten, or is eligible to enter kindergarten within the next four months,
but is younger than 13 years of age.
When a child in a child care
center reaches the minimum toddler or preschool age, the center must inform the
parents of the risk and benefits of the child moving to the new age group, and
of options to remain in the current age group, according to Minnesota Rules,
parts 9503.0040, subpart 4. The center must have policies and procedures to
address the health, safety, and child development needs of children when the age
range of children in a group is greater than 24 months.
(c) Notwithstanding Minnesota
Rules, part 9503.0040, subpart 3, item B, subitem 2, until June 30, 1998, during
a center's regular hours of operation, children in different age categories may
be mixed within a group if there is no more than a 48-month range in age among
children in a group.
Subd. 3. [COMMISSIONER'S
AUTHORITY.] (a) The commissioner may limit an individual
child care center's use of the interim age groupings in subdivision 2 based on
the performance of the center.
(b) The commissioner may grant a
variance to any of the provisions in subdivisions 1 or 2, as long as the health
and safety of the children served by the program are not affected. The request
for a variance shall comply with the provisions of Minnesota Statutes, section
245A.04, subdivision 9.
Sec. 45. [COMMISSIONER OF HEALTH; BACKGROUND STUDIES
REPORT.]
By January 15, 1998, the
commissioner of health shall report to the chairs of the health and human
services fiscal committees of the house and the senate on the background study
costs required by Minnesota Statutes, sections 245A.04, subdivision 3,
paragraphs (b) and (e) and 144.057, subdivision 1, clause (2), with
recommendations for providing funding to cover the costs of these studies.
Sec. 46. [REPORT ON RULE CONSOLIDATION.]
The commissioner of human
services shall report no later than March 15, 1998, to the chairs of the senate
committee on health and family security, the house committee on health and human
services, the senate health and family security budget division, and the house
health and human services finance division on the implementation of rule
consolidation authorized by Minnesota Statutes, section 245B.01. In addition,
the report shall include recommendations as needed to improve the consolidated
rule's effectiveness in providing safeguards for clients while streamlining the
regulatory process. The commissioner shall appoint an advisory task force to
assist in developing the report. The task force membership shall include, but
not be limited to, representatives from provider, advocacy, and other interested
groups. Department of human services staff shall not be members of the task
force but shall provide technical assistance as needed.
Sec. 47. [REPEALER.]
(a) Minnesota Statutes 1996,
sections 245A.20; 245A.21; and 252.53, are repealed.
(b) Minnesota Rules, part
4668.0020, is repealed effective August 1, 1997.
(c) Minnesota Rules, parts
9503.0170, subpart 7; 9525.0215; 9525.0225; 9525.0235; 9525.0243; 9525.0245;
9525.0255; 9525.0265; 9525.0275; 9525.0285; 9525.0295; 9525.0305; 9525.0315;
9525.0325; 9525.0335; 9525.0345; 9525.0355; 9525.0500; 9525.0510; 9525.0520;
9525.0530; 9525.0540; 9525.0550; 9525.0560; 9525.0570; 9525.0580; 9525.0590;
9525.0600; 9525.0610; 9525.0620; 9525.0630; 9525.0640; 9525.0650; 9525.0660;
9525.1240, subpart 1, item E, subitem (6); 9525.1500; 9525.1510; 9525.1520;
9525.1530; 9525.1540; 9525.1550; 9525.1560; 9525.1570, subparts 2, 3, 4, 5, and
6; 9525.1590; 9525.1610; 9525.1620; 9525.1630; 9525.1640; 9525.1650; 9525.1660;
9525.1670; 9525.1680; 9525.1690; 9525.2000; 9525.2010; 9525.2020; 9525.2025;
9525.2030; 9525.2040; 9525.2050; 9525.2060; 9525.2070; 9525.2080; 9525.2090;
9525.2100; 9525.2110; 9525.2120; 9525.2130; 9525.2140; 9555.8000; 9555.8100;
9555.8200; 9555.8300; 9555.8400; and 9555.8500, are repealed.
Sec. 48. [EFFECTIVE DATE.]
Sections 1 to 29 and 38 to 46
are effective the day following final enactment.
Sections 30 to 37 and 47,
paragraphs (a) and (c) are effective January 1, 1998."
Delete the title and insert:
"A bill for an act relating to human services; adding
provisions for licensing programs; imposing and modifying civil penalties;
amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, sections 144.057, subdivision 1; 144A.46,
subdivision 5; 245A.02, subdivisions 15, 16, and 17; 245A.03, subdivision 2;
245A.04, subdivisions 3, 3a, 3b, 3c, 4, 5, 6, and 7; 245A.06, subdivisions 1, 3,
4, 5, 5a, 6, and 7; 245A.07, subdivisions 1 and 3; 245A.08, subdivisions 1 and
2; 245A.09, subdivision 7; 245A.11, subdivision 2; 245A.16, subdivision 2;
256E.115; and 364.09; Laws 1995, chapter 158, section 7; proposing coding for
new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 245A; proposing coding for new law as
Minnesota Statutes, chapters 245B; and 245C; repealing Minnesota Statutes 1996,
sections 245A.20; 245A.21; and 252.53; Minnesota Rules, parts 4668.0020;
9503.0170, subpart 7; 9525.0215; 9525.0225; 9525.0235; 9525.0243; 9525.0245;
9525.0255; 9525.0265; 9525.0275; 9525.0285; 9525.0295; 9525.0305; 9525.0315;
9525.0325; 9525.0335; 9525.0345; 9525.0355; 9525.0500; 9525.0510; 9525.0520;
9525.0530; 9525.0540; 9525.0550; 9525.0560; 9525.0570; 9525.0580; 9525.0590;
9525.0600; 9525.0610; 9525.0620; 9525.0630; 9525.0640; 9525.0650; 9525.0660;
9525.1240, subpart 1, item E, subitem (6); 9525.1500; 9525.1510; 9525.1520;
9525.1530; 9525.1540; 9525.1550; 9525.1560; 9525.1570, subparts 2, 3, 4, 5, and
6; 9525.1590; 9525.1610; 9525.1620; 9525.1630; 9525.1640; 9525.1650; 9525.1660;
9525.1670; 9525.1680; 9525.1690; 9525.2000; 9525.2010; 9525.2020; 9525.2025;
9525.2030; 9525.2040; 9525.2050; 9525.2060; 9525.2070; 9525.2080; 9525.2090;
9525.2100; 9525.2110; 9525.2120; 9525.2130; 9525.2140; 9555.8000; 9555.8100;
9555.8200; 9555.8300; 9555.8400; and 9555.8500."
The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.
Wejcman offered an amendment to S. F. No. 234, as
amended.
Bradley requested a division of the Wejcman amendment to
S. F. No. 234, as amended.
The first portion of the Wejcman amendment to S. F. No.
234, as amended, reads as follows:
Page 45, line 24, after "paragraphs" delete "(a), clause
(4), and (b), clause (1)" and insert "(1), clause
(iv), and (2), clause (i)"
Page 62, line 12, after "except" insert "section
245B.07"
Page 72, line 1, after the period insert "In developing these recommendations, the commissioner shall
consult with representatives of organizations with an interest in child care
services, including, but not limited to, the following: corporations and other
employers; foundations; the state commissioners of economic security and
children, families, and learning; not-for-profit and county agencies; and
consumers of child care services."
Page 73, line 9, delete "three" and insert "four"
Page 73, delete line 10
Page 73, lines 11 and 12, delete "who are unrelated to the individual"
Page 73, line 12, after "two" insert "; and"
Page 73, after line 12, insert:
"(3) the total number of
children being cared for at any one time does not exceed five"
The motion prevailed and the first portion of the
Wejcman amendment was adopted.
The second portion of the Wejcman amendment to S. F. No.
234, as amended, reads as follows:
Page 73, line 13, delete "AND CHILD CARE CENTER"
Page 73, delete lines 32 to 36
Page 74, delete lines 1 to 29
Page 74, line 30, delete "3"
and insert "2" and delete everything after the
headnote
Page 74, delete lines 31 to 33
Page 74, line 34, delete "(b)"
Page 74, line 35, delete "subdivisions 1 or 2" and insert "subdivision 1"
A roll call was requested and properly seconded.
The question was taken on the second portion of the
Wejcman amendment and the roll was called. There were 55 yeas and 74 nays as
follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
nonresidential program
licensed or required to be licensed as a child care
center under Minnesota Rules, parts 9503.0005 to 9503.0170, serving more
than ten children with the primary purpose of providing child care for school
age children. School age child care program does not include programs such as
scouting, boys clubs, girls clubs, nor sports or art programs.
1997
1998, the commissioner shall conduct a background
study on individuals specified in paragraph (c), clauses (1) to (5), who perform
direct contact services in a nursing home or a home care agency licensed under
chapter 144A or a boarding care home licensed under sections 144.50 to 144.58,
when the subject of the study resides outside Minnesota; the study must be at
least as comprehensive as that of a Minnesota resident and include a search of
information from the criminal justice data communications network in the state
where the subject of the study resides.
an a license application, or immediately suspend, suspend, or revoke a license.
Failure or refusal of an individual to cooperate with the study is just cause
for denying or terminating employment of the individual if the individual's
failure or refusal to cooperate could cause the applicant's application to be
denied or the license holder's license to be immediately suspended, suspended,
or revoked.
An individual who is subject
to an applicant background study under this section and whose disqualification
in connection with a license would be subject to the limitations on
reconsideration set forth in subdivision 3b, paragraph (c), shall be
disqualified for conviction of the crimes specified in the manner specified in
subdivision 3b, paragraph (c). The commissioner of human services shall amend
Minnesota Rules, part 9543.3070, to conform to this section.
(n) An individual subject to
disqualification under this subdivision has the applicable rights in subdivision
3a, 3b, or 3c.
the applicant or license holder shall not be
told what that information is only the individual
studied shall be informed of the information contained in the subject's
background study unless the only basis for the
disqualification is failure to cooperate, the data practices act provides
for release of the information, or the individual
studied authorizes the release of the information. If
the commissioner determines that the individual studied has a disqualifying
characteristic, the commissioner shall review the information immediately
available and make a determination as to the subject's immediate risk of harm to
persons served by the program where the individual studied will have direct
contact. The commissioner shall consider all relevant information available,
including the following factors in determining the immediate risk of harm: the
recency of the disqualifying characteristic, the recency of discharge from
probation for the crimes; the number of disqualifying characteristics; the
intrusiveness or violence of the disqualifying characteristic; the vulnerability
of the victim involved in the disqualifying characteristic; and the similarity
of the victim to the persons served by the program where the individual studied
will have direct contact. The commissioner may determine that the evaluation of
the information immediately available gives the commissioner reason to believe
one of the following:
Within 30 days after receiving notice of disqualification
under subdivision 3a, The individual who is the subject of the study disqualification may
request a reconsideration of the notice of disqualification.
to show showing that:
(1) the information the
commissioner relied upon is incorrect; or
(2) the subject of the study
does not pose a risk of harm to any person served by the applicant or license
holder.
review consider the consequences of the event or events that
could lead to disqualification, whether there is
more than one disqualifying event, the vulnerability of the victim at the time
of the event, the time elapsed without a repeat of the same or similar event, and documentation of successful completion by the
individual studied of training or rehabilitation pertinent to the event, and any other information relevant to
reconsideration. In reviewing a disqualification under this section, the commissioner shall give
preeminent weight to the safety of each person to be served by the license
holder or applicant over the interests of the license holder or applicant.
section sections 609.20 (manslaughter in the first degree),
609.205 (manslaughter in the second degree), criminal
vehicular homicide under 609.21 (criminal vehicular homicide and injury), 609.215 (aiding suicide or aiding
attempted suicide), felony violations under 609.221
to 609.2231 (felony violations of assault in the
first, second, third, or fourth degree), 609.713 (terroristic threats), 609.235
(use of drugs to injure or to facilitate crime), 609.24 (simple robbery),
609.245 (aggravated robbery), 609.25 (kidnapping), 609.255 (false imprisonment),
609.561 or 609.562 (arson in the first or second degree), 609.71 (riot), burglary in the first or second degree under 609.582
(burglary in the first or second degree), 609.66 (reckless use of a gun or dangerous weapon or intentionally pointing a gun at or towards a human
being), 609.665 (setting a spring gun guns), 609.67 (unlawfully owning, possessing, or operating a machine
gun guns and short-barreled
shotguns), 609.749 (harassment; stalking),
152.021 or 152.022 (controlled substance crime in the first or second degree),
152.023, subdivision 1, clause (3) or (4), or subdivision 2, clause (4)
(controlled substance crime in the third degree), 152.024, subdivision 1, clause
(2), (3), or (4) (controlled substance crime in the fourth degree), 609.224,
subdivision 2, paragraph (c) (fifth-degree assault by a caregiver against a
vulnerable adult), 609.228 (great bodily harm caused by distribution of drugs),
609.23 (mistreatment of persons confined), 609.231 (mistreatment of residents or
patients), 609.2325 (criminal abuse of a vulnerable adult), 609.233 (criminal
neglect of a vulnerable adult), 609.2335 (financial exploitation of a vulnerable
adult), 609.234 (failure to report), 609.265
(abduction), 609.2664 to 609.2665 (manslaughter of an unborn child in the first
or second degree), 609.267 to 609.2672 (assault of an unborn child in the first,
second, or third degree), 609.268 (injury or death of an unborn child in the
commission of a crime), 617.293 (disseminating or displaying harmful material to
minors), 609.378 (neglect or endangerment of a child), a
gross misdemeanor offense under 609.377 (a gross
misdemeanor offense of malicious punishment of a child), 609.72, subdivision
3 (disorderly conduct against a vulnerable adult); or an attempt or conspiracy
to commit any of these offenses, as each of these offenses is defined in
Minnesota Statutes; or an offense in any other state, the elements of which are
substantially similar to the elements of any of the foregoing offenses;
a felony offense of
malicious punishment of a child), 609.322 (soliciting solicitation,
inducement, or and
promotion of prostitution), 609.323 (receiving profit derived from
prostitution), 609.342 to 609.345 (criminal sexual conduct in the first, second,
third, or fourth degree), 609.352 (solicitation of children to engage in sexual
conduct), 617.246 (use of minors in a sexual performance), 617.247 (possession
of pictorial representations of a minor), 609.365 (incest), or an attempt or
conspiracy to commit any of these offenses as defined in Minnesota Statutes, or
an offense in any other state, the elements of which are substantially similar
to any of the foregoing offenses;
abuse maltreatment of a vulnerable adult that resulted in
substantial bodily harm as defined in section 609.02, subdivision 7a, or
substantial mental or emotional harm as supported by competent psychological or
psychiatric evidence.
reconsideration of rescission or set aside a disqualification under this subdivision, or to set aside or uphold the results of
the study under subdivision 3 this section, is
the final administrative agency action and shall not be subject to further
review in a contested case under chapter 14 involving a negative licensing action appeal taken in
response to the disqualification or involving an
accuracy and completeness appeal under section 13.04.
, on or after the effective date
of rules adopted under subdivision 3, paragraph (i), is an employee of an
employer, as defined in section 179A.03, subdivision 15, may request a contested
case hearing under chapter 14. Rules adopted under this chapter may not preclude
an employee in a contested case hearing for disqualification from submitting
evidence concerning information gathered under subdivision 3, paragraph (e).
a an initial license, the
commissioner shall conduct an inspection of the program. The inspection must
include but is not limited to:
a provisional an initial
license under subdivision 7. If the commissioner issues a provisional an initial
license under subdivision 7, these requirements must be completed within one
year after the issuance of a provisional an initial license. The
observation in paragraph (a), clause (4) is not required if the commissioner
determines that the observation would hinder the persons receiving services in
benefiting from the program.
sections 245A.01 to 245A.15 this chapter, the commissioner must be given access to
the physical plant and grounds where the program is provided, documents, persons
served by the program, and staff whenever the program is in operation and the
information is relevant to inspections or investigations conducted by the
commissioner. The commissioner must be given access without prior notice and as
often as the commissioner considers necessary if the commissioner is conducting
an investigation of allegations of abuse, neglect,
maltreatment, or other violation of applicable laws
or rules. In conducting inspections, the commissioner may request and shall
receive assistance from other state, county, and municipal governmental agencies
and departments. The applicant or license holder shall allow the commissioner to
photocopy, photograph, and make audio and video tape recordings during the
inspection of the program at the commissioner's expense. The commissioner shall
obtain a court order or the consent of the subject of the records or the parents
or legal guardian of the subject before photocopying hospital medical records.
probationary conditional a license, the commissioner shall evaluate
information gathered under this section. The commissioner's evaluation shall
consider facts, conditions, or circumstances concerning the program's operation,
the well-being of persons served by the program, available consumer evaluations
of the program, and information about the qualifications of the personnel
employed by the applicant or license holder.
Prior to the adoption of rules establishing
disqualification standards, the commissioner shall forward the proposed rules to
the commissioner of human rights for review and recommendation concerning the
protection of individual rights. The recommendation of the commissioner of human
rights is not binding on the commissioner of human services.
;
PROVISIONAL LICENSE.] (a) If the commissioner determines that the program
complies with all applicable rules and laws, the commissioner shall issue a
license. At minimum, the license shall state:
a
provisional an initial license for a period not
to exceed one year two
years if:
A provisional license must not
be issued except at the time that a license is first issued to an applicant.
and
upon reinspection, the commissioner finds that the
applicant or license holder has not corrected the violations specified in the
correction order, the commissioner may order impose a fine. If a fine was
imposed and the violation was not corrected, the commissioner may impose an
additional fine. This section does not prohibit the commissioner from
seeking a court order, denying an application, or suspending, revoking, or
making probationary conditional the license in addition to ordering imposing a fine.
APPEAL RECONSIDERATION OF
FINE.] A license holder who is ordered to pay a fine must be notified of the
order by certified mail. The notice must be mailed to the address shown on the
application or the last known address of the license holder. The notice must
state the reasons the fine was ordered and must inform the license holder of the
responsibility for payment of fines in subdivision 7 and the right to a contested case hearing under chapter 14 request reconsideration of the fine. The license holder
may appeal request
reconsideration of the order to forfeit a fine by notifying the commissioner
by certified mail within 15 20 calendar days after receiving the order. A timely appeal request for
reconsideration shall stay forfeiture of the fine until the commissioner
issues a final order under section 245A.08, subdivision
5. decision on the request for reconsideration. The
request for reconsideration must be in writing and:
A fine
assessed for a violation shall stop accruing when the commissioner receives the
written notice. The commissioner shall reinspect the program within three
working days after receiving the notice. If upon reinspection the
commissioner determines that a violation has not been corrected as indicated by
the order to forfeit, accrual of the daily fine resumes
on the date of reinspection and the amount of fines that otherwise would have
accrued between the date the commissioner received the notice and date of the
reinspection is added to the total assessment due from the license holder the commissioner may issue a second fine. The
commissioner shall notify the license holder by certified mail that accrual of the a second
fine has resumed been
assessed. The license holder may challenge the
resumption in a contested case under chapter 14 by written request within 15
days after receipt of the notice of resumption. Recovery of the resumed fine
must be stayed if a controlling individual or a legal representative on behalf
of the license holder makes a written request for a hearing. The request for
hearing, however, may not stay accrual of the daily fine for violations that
have not been corrected. The cost of reinspection conducted under this
subdivision for uncorrected violations must be added to the total amount of
accrued fines due from the license holder request
reconsideration of the second fine under the provisions of subdivision 4.
Until the commissioner adopts one or more schedules of
fines, Fines shall be assessed as follows:
$1,000 $500 for each
occurrence of violation of law or rule prohibiting the maltreatment of children
or the abuse, neglect, or exploitation maltreatment of vulnerable adults, including but not
limited to corporal punishment, illegal or unauthorized use of physical,
mechanical, or chemical restraints, and illegal or unauthorized use of aversive
or deprivation procedures;
$200 $100 for each
occurrence of a violation of law or rule governing matters of health, safety, or
supervision, including but not limited to the provision of adequate staff to
child or adult ratios, except that the holder of a
family or group family day care license shall forfeit $100 for a violation under
this clause; and
$100 $50 for each
occurrence of a violation of law or rule other than those included in clauses
(1) and (2), except that the holder of a family or group
family day care license shall forfeit $50 for a violation under this clause.
calendar day or part of a day that a violation
continues to exist after the date set for correction
identified in the commissioner's correction forfeiture
order.
probationary conditional the license or secure an injunction against
the continuing operation of the program of a license holder who does not comply
with applicable law or rule. When applying sanctions authorized under this
section, the commissioner shall consider the nature, chronicity, or severity of
the violation of law or rule and the effect of the violation on the health,
safety, or rights of persons served by the program.
PROBATION DENIAL, CONDITIONAL
LICENSE.] The commissioner may suspend, revoke, or make probationary conditional, or deny a license if an applicant or a license holder fails to comply fully
with applicable laws or rules, or knowingly withholds relevant information from or gives false or
misleading information to the commissioner in connection with an application for
a license or during an investigation. A license holder who has had a license
suspended, revoked, or made probationary conditional must be given notice of the action by
certified mail. The notice must be mailed to the address shown on the
application or the last known address of the license holder. The notice must
state the reasons the license was suspended, revoked, or made probationary conditional.
probationary conditional,
the notice must inform the license holder of the right to request a
reconsideration by the commissioner. The request for reconsideration must be
made in writing by certified mail and must be received by the commissioner
within ten calendar days after the license holder receives notice that the
license has been made probationary conditional. The license holder may submit with the
request for reconsideration written argument or evidence in support of the
request for reconsideration. The commissioner's disposition of a request for
reconsideration is final and is not subject to appeal under chapter 14.
sections section 245A.05 to or 245A.07, the
commissioner shall issue a notice of and order for hearing to the appellant
under chapter 14.
sections section
245A.05 to or 245A.07,
the appellant may be represented by counsel and has the right to call, examine,
and cross-examine witnesses. The administrative law judge may require the
presence of witnesses and evidence by subpoena on behalf of any party.
For programs and services for
people with developmental disabilities, the commissioner of human services shall
develop demonstration projects to use the standards of the commission on
accreditation of rehabilitation facilities and the standards of the
accreditation council on services to persons with disabilities during the period
of July 1, 1993 to December 31, 1994, and incorporate the alternative use of
these standards and methods in licensing rules where appropriate. If the
commissioner determines that the methods in clause (2) or (3) can be used in
licensing a program, the commissioner may reduce any fee set under section
245A.10 by up to 50 percent. The commissioner shall present a plan by January
31, 1995, to accept accreditation by either the accreditation council on
services to people with disabilities or the commission on the accreditation of
rehabilitation services as evidence of being in compliance where applicable with
state licensing.
abuse or neglect maltreatment of children or adults in programs for
which the county or private agency is the commissioner's designated
representative and record a disposition of each complaint in accordance with
applicable law or rule. The county or private agency shall conduct similar
investigations of allegations of violations of rules governing licensure of the
program.
probationary conditional a license, the county or private agency
shall make that recommendation to the commissioner within ten working days.
AND, TRANSITIONAL HOUSING, AND
INDEPENDENT LIVING ASSISTANCE SERVICES FOR HOMELESS YOUTH.]
homeless targeted youth for the purpose of providing establishing a system
of safe houses and,
transitional housing, and independent living
assistance for homeless such youth. The commissioner shall appoint a review
committee of up to eight members to evaluate the proposals. The review panel
must include representation from communities of color, youth, and other
community providers and agency representatives who understand the needs and
problems of homeless targeted youth. The commissioner shall also assist in
coordinating funding from federal and state grant programs and funding available
from a variety of sources for efforts to promote a continuum of services for targeted youth through a consolidated grant
application. The commissioner shall analyze the needs of homeless targeted youth and
gaps in services throughout the state and determine how to best serve those
needs within the available funding.
SAFE HOUSES AND
TRANSITIONAL HOUSING PROGRAM SERVICE REQUIREMENTS;
PARTICIPATION REQUIREMENTS; LICENSURE OF INDEPENDENT LIVING ASSISTANCE
PROVIDERS.] A safe house provides emergency housing
for homeless youth ranging in age from 13 to 22 with the goal of reuniting the
family, if appropriate, whenever possible. Transitional housing provides housing
for homeless youth ages 16 to 22 who are transitioning into independent living.
In developing both types of housing, the commissioner and the review committee
shall try to create a family atmosphere in a neighborhood or community and, if
possible, provide separate but cooperative homes for males and females. It may
be necessary, due to licensing restrictions, to provide separate housing for
different age groups. (a) [REQUIRED SERVICES.]
The following services, or adequate access to referrals for the following
services, must be made available to the homeless targeted youth participating in
the programs described in subdivision 1:
resulted in contributed to
the homelessness or could impede making the transition
to independent living;
Enrollment in an academic
program is required for residency in transitional housing.
eligibility for a family day care license, a family foster
care license, or a home care provider license the
licensing and background study process under chapter 245A; to eligibility
for school bus driver endorsements; or to eligibility for special transportation
service endorsements. This chapter also shall not apply to eligibility for
juvenile corrections employment, where the offense involved child physical or
sexual abuse or criminal sexual conduct.
of the senate health
and family services security committee and the health care and family services
finance security budget division.
Biernat | Garcia | Johnson, R. | McGuire | Pugh | Trimble |
Carlson | Greenfield | Kahn | Milbert | Rest | Tunheim |
Chaudhary | Greiling | Koskinen | Mullery | Rukavina | Wagenius |
Clark | Hausman | Kubly | Munger | Schumacher | Wejcman |
Dawkins | Hilty | Leighton | Olson, E. | Sekhon | Spk. Carruthers |
Delmont | Huntley | Lieder | Opatz | Skare | |
Dorn | Jaros | Long | Orfield | Skoglund | |
Entenza | Jefferson | Mahon | Osthoff | Slawik | |
Evans | Jennings | Mariani | Paymar | Solberg | |
Folliard | Johnson, A. | Marko | Pelowski | Tomassoni | |
Those who voted in the negative were:
Abrams | Dempsey | Kinkel | McElroy | Rifenberg | Tuma |
Anderson, B. | Erhardt | Knight | Molnau | Rostberg | Vickerman |
Anderson, I. | Farrell | Knoblach | Mulder | Seagren | Weaver |
Bakk | Finseth | Koppendrayer | Ness | Seifert | Wenzel |
Bettermann | Goodno | Kraus | Nornes | Smith | Westfall |
Bishop | Gunther | Krinkie | Olson, M. | Stanek | Westrom |
Boudreau | Haas | Kuisle | Osskopp | Stang | Winter |
Bradley | Harder | Larsen | Ozment | Sviggum | Wolf |
Broecker | Hasskamp | Leppik | Paulsen | Swenson, D. | Workman |
Commers | Holsten | Lindner | Pawlenty | Swenson, H. | |
Daggett | Juhnke | Luther | Peterson | Sykora | |
Davids | Kalis | Macklin | Reuter | Tingelstad | |
Dehler | Kielkucki | Mares | Rhodes | Tompkins | |
The motion did not prevail and the second portion of the Wejcman amendment was not adopted.
Weaver moved to amend S. F. No. 234, as amended, as follows:
Page 34, line 28, delete the new amount and reinstate the stricken amount
Page 34, line 35, delete the new amount and reinstate the stricken amount
Page 35, line 5, delete the new amount and reinstate the stricken amount
The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.
S. F. No. 234, A bill for an act relating to human
services; adding provisions for licensing programs; imposing and modifying civil
penalties; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, sections 144.057, subdivision 1;
144A.46, subdivision 5; 245A.02, subdivisions 15, 16, and 17, and by adding
subdivisions; 245A.03, subdivision 2; 245A.04, subdivisions 3, 3a, 3b, 3c, 4, 5,
6, 7, and by adding a subdivision; 245A.06, subdivisions 1, 3, 4, 5, 5a, 6, and
7; 245A.07, subdivisions 1 and 3; 245A.08, subdivisions 1 and 2; 245A.09,
subdivision 7; 245A.11, subdivision 2; 245A.16, subdivision 2; 256E.115; and
364.09; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 245A;
repealing Minnesota Statutes 1996, sections 245A.091; 245A.20; 245A.21; and
252.53; Laws 1996, chapter 408, article 10, section 13; Minnesota Rules, parts
4668.0020; 9503.0170, subpart 7; 9525.0215; 9525.0225;
9525.0235; 9525.0243; 9525.0245; 9525.0255; 9525.0265; 9525.0275; 9525.0285;
9525.0295; 9525.0305; 9525.0315; 9525.0325; 9525.0335; 9525.0345; 9525.0355;
9525.0500; 9525.0510; 9525.0520; 9525.0530; 9525.0540; 9525.0550; 9525.0560;
9525.0570; 9525.0580; 9525.0590; 9525.0600; 9525.0610; 9525.0620; 9525.0630;
9525.0640; 9525.0650; 9525.0660; 9525.1240, subpart 1, item E, subite,m;
9525.1500; 9525.1510; 9525.1520; 9525.1530; 9525.1540; 9525.1550; 9525.1560;
9525.1570; 9525.1590; 9525.1610; 9525.1620; 9525.1630; 9525.1640; 9525.1650;
9525.1660; 9525.1670; 9525.1680; 9525.1690; 9525.2000; 9525.2010; 9525.2020;
9525.2025; 9525.2030; 9525.2040; 9525.2050; 9525.2060; 9525.2070; 9525.2080;
9525.2090; 9525.2100; 9525.2110; 9525.2120; 9525.2130; 9525.2140; 9543.3070;
9555.8000; 9555.8100; 9555.8200; 9555.8300; 9555.8400; and 9555.8500.
The bill was read for the third time, as amended, and
placed upon its final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of the bill and
the roll was called. There were 131 yeas and 0 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Abrams | Erhardt | Juhnke | Mahon | Pawlenty | Sviggum |
Anderson, B. | Evans | Kahn | Mares | Paymar | Swenson, D. |
Anderson, I. | Farrell | Kalis | Mariani | Pelowski | Swenson, H. |
Bakk | Finseth | Kelso | Marko | Peterson | Sykora |
Bettermann | Folliard | Kielkucki | McElroy | Pugh | Tingelstad |
Biernat | Garcia | Kinkel | McGuire | Rest | Tomassoni |
Bishop | Goodno | Knight | Milbert | Reuter | Tompkins |
Boudreau | Greenfield | Knoblach | Molnau | Rhodes | Trimble |
Bradley | Greiling | Koppendrayer | Mulder | Rifenberg | Tuma |
Broecker | Gunther | Koskinen | Mullery | Rostberg | Tunheim |
Carlson | Haas | Kraus | Munger | Rukavina | Vickerman |
Chaudhary | Harder | Krinkie | Murphy | Schumacher | Wagenius |
Clark | Hasskamp | Kubly | Ness | Seagren | Weaver |
Commers | Hausman | Kuisle | Nornes | Seifert | Wejcman |
Daggett | Hilty | Larsen | Olson, E. | Sekhon | Wenzel |
Davids | Holsten | Leighton | Olson, M. | Skare | Westfall |
Dawkins | Huntley | Leppik | Opatz | Skoglund | Westrom |
Dehler | Jaros | Lieder | Orfield | Slawik | Winter |
Delmont | Jefferson | Lindner | Osskopp | Smith | Wolf |
Dempsey | Jennings | Long | Osthoff | Solberg | Workman |
Dorn | Johnson, A. | Luther | Ozment | Stanek | Spk. Carruthers |
Entenza | Johnson, R. | Macklin | Paulsen | Stang | |
The bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.
S. F. No. 349 was reported to the House.
Juhnke moved that S. F. No. 349 be continued on Special Orders. The motion prevailed.
S. F. No. 122 was reported to the House.
McElroy moved to amend S. F. No. 122 as follows:
Delete everything after the enacting clause and insert the following language of H. F. No. 58, the second engrossment:
"Section 1. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 245A.04,
subdivision 10, is amended to read:
Subd. 10. [ADOPTION AGENCY; ADDITIONAL REQUIREMENTS.] In
addition to the other requirements of this section, an individual, corporation,
partnership, voluntary association, other organization, or controlling
individual applying for a license to place children for adoption must:
(1) incorporate as a nonprofit corporation under chapter
317A;
(2) file with the application for licensure a copy of
the disclosure form required under section 259.37, subdivision 2;
(3) provide evidence that a bond has been obtained and
will be continuously maintained (4) submit a certified audit to the commissioner each
year the license is renewed as required under section 245A.03, subdivision 1.
Sec. 2. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 257.022,
subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. [FAMILY COURT PROCEEDINGS.] (a) In all proceedings for dissolution, custody, legal
separation, annulment, or parentage, after the commencement of the proceeding,
or at any time after completion of the proceedings, and continuing during the
minority of the child, the court may, upon the request of the parent or
grandparent of a party, grant reasonable visitation rights to the unmarried
minor child, after dissolution of marriage, legal separation, annulment, or
determination of parentage during minority if it finds that: (1) visitation rights would be in the best interests
of the child; and (2) such
visitation would not interfere with the parent-
child relationship. (b) If the parent or grandparent
of a party makes specific allegations that the proposed visitation would be in
the best interests of the child and that the visitation would not interfere with
the parent-child relationship, the court shall hold a hearing at the earliest
possible time to determine the facts surrounding such allegations.
(c) If a motion for grandparent
visitation has been heard and denied, unless agreed to in writing by the
parties, no subsequent motion may be filed within one year after disposition of
a prior motion on its merits.
Sec. 3. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 257.022, is
amended by adding a subdivision to read:
Subd. 3a. [GRANDPARENT
VISITATION WITH AN ADOPTED CHILD.] (a) A grandparent of
a child adopted by a stepparent may petition and a court may grant an order
setting visitation with the child if:
(1) the grandparent is the
parent of:
(i) a deceased parent of the
child; or
(ii) a parent of the child whose
parental relationship was terminated by a decree of adoption according to
section 259.57, subdivision 1; and
(2) the court determines that
the requested visitation:
(i) is in the best interests of
the child; and
(ii) would not interfere with
the parent and child relationship.
(b) Failure to comply with the
terms of an order for visitation granted under this subdivision is not a basis
for revoking, setting aside, or otherwise challenging the validity of a consent,
relinquishment, or adoption of a child.
Sec. 4. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 259.20,
subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. Portions of chapters 245A, 257, 260, and 317A
may also affect the adoption of a particular child. Provisions of the Indian Child Welfare Act, United States
Code, title 25, chapter 21, sections 1901-23, may also apply in the adoption of
an Indian child, and may preempt specific provisions of this chapter.
Sec. 5. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 259.22,
subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. No petition for adoption shall be filed unless
the child sought to be adopted has been placed by the commissioner of human
services, the commissioner's agent, or a licensed child-placing agency. The
provisions of this subdivision shall not apply if
(a) the child is over 14 years of age;
(b) Sec. 6. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 259.22,
subdivision 4, is amended to read:
Subd. 4. [TIME FOR FILING PETITION.] A petition shall be
filed not later than 24 months after a child is placed in a prospective adoptive
home. If a petition is not filed by that time, the agency that placed the child,
or, in a direct adoptive placement, the agency that (1) that the time for filing a petition be extended
because of the child's special needs as defined under title IV-E of the Social
Security Act, United States Code, title 42, section 673; (2) that, based on a written
plan for completing filing of the petition, including a specific timeline, to
which the prospective adoptive parents have agreed, the time for filing a
petition be extended long enough to complete the plan because such an extension
is in the best interests of the child; or
(3) that the child be
removed from the prospective adoptive home.
The prospective adoptive parent must reimburse an agency
for the cost of preparing and filing the motion and report under this section,
unless the costs are reimbursed by the commissioner under section 259.67 or
259.73.
Sec. 7. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 259.24,
subdivision 2a, is amended to read:
Subd. 2a. [TIME OF CONSENT;
NOTICE OF INTENT TO CONSENT TO ADOPTION.] (a)
Not sooner than 72 hours after the birth of a child and not later than 60 days
after the child's placement in a prospective adoptive home, a person whose
consent is required under this section shall execute a consent.
(b) Unless all birth parents
from whom consent is required under this section are involved in making the
adoptive placement and intend to consent to the adoption, a birth parent who
intends to execute a consent to an adoption must give notice to the child's
other birth parent of the intent to consent to the adoption prior to or within
72 hours following the placement of the child, if the other birth parent's
consent to the adoption is required under subdivision 1. The birth parent who
receives notice shall have 60 days after the placement of the child to either
consent or refuse to consent to the adoption. If the birth parent who receives
notice fails to take either of these actions, that parent shall be deemed to
have irrevocably consented to the child's adoption.
(c) When notice is required
under this subdivision, it shall be provided to the other birth parent according
to the rules of civil procedure for service of a summons and complaint.
Sec. 8. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 259.41, is
amended to read:
259.41 [ADOPTION STUDY.]
Subdivision 1. [STUDY
REQUIRED BEFORE PLACEMENT; CERTAIN RELATIVES EXCEPTED.] (a) An adoption study and written report must be
completed before the child is placed in a prospective adoptive home under this
chapter (b) A Subd. 2. [FORM OF STUDY.] (a) The adoption study must include at least one in-home
visit with the prospective adoptive parent. At a minimum, the study must
include the following about the prospective adoptive parent:
(1) a background check (2) a medical and social
history and assessment of current health;
(3) an assessment of
potential parenting skills;
(4) an assessment of ability
to provide adequate financial support for a child; and
(5) an assessment of the
level of knowledge and awareness of adoption issues including, where appropriate,
matters relating to interracial, cross-cultural, and special needs adoptions.
(b) The adoption study is
the basis for completion of a written report. The report must be in a format
specified by the commissioner and must contain recommendations regarding the
suitability of the subject of the study to be an adoptive parent. Subd. 3. [BACKGROUND CHECK;
AFFIDAVIT OF HISTORY.] (1) authorize access by the
agency to any private data needed to complete the study (2) provide all addresses at
which the prospective adoptive parent and anyone in the household over the age
of 13 has resided in the previous ten years;
(3) disclose any names used
previously other than the name used at the time of the study (b) When the requirements of
paragraph (a) have been met, the agency shall immediately begin a background
check, on each person over the age of 13 living in the home, consisting, at a
minimum, of the following:
(1) a check of criminal
conviction data with the bureau of criminal apprehension and local law
enforcement authorities;
(2) a check for data on
substantiated maltreatment of a child or vulnerable adult and domestic violence
data with local law enforcement and social services agencies and district
courts; and
(3) for those persons under the
age of 25, a check of juvenile court records.
Notwithstanding the provisions
of section 260.161, the bureau of criminal apprehension, local law enforcement
and social services agencies, district courts, and juvenile courts shall release
the requested information to the agency completing the adoption study.
When paragraph (b) requires
checking the data or records of local law enforcement and social services
agencies and district and juvenile courts, the agency shall check with the law
enforcement and social services agencies and courts whose jurisdictions cover
the addresses under paragraph (a), clause (2). In the event that the agency is
unable to complete any of the record checks required by paragraph (b), the
agency shall document the fact and the agency's efforts to obtain the
information.
(c) At any time prior to
completion of the background check required under paragraph (b), a prospective
adoptive parent may submit to the agency conducting the study a sworn affidavit
stating whether they or any person residing in the household have been convicted
of a crime. The affidavit shall also state whether the adoptive parent or any
other person residing in the household is the subject of an open investigation
of, or have been the subject of a substantiated allegation of, child or
vulnerable-adult maltreatment within the past ten years. A complete description
of the crime, open investigation, or substantiated abuse, and a complete
description of any sentence, treatment, or disposition must be included. The
affidavit must contain an acknowledgment that if, at any time before the
adoption is final, a court receives evidence leading to a conclusion that a
prospective adoptive parent knowingly gave false information in the affidavit,
it shall be determined that the adoption of the child by the prospective
adoptive parent is not in the best interests of the child.
(d) For the purposes of
subdivision 1 and section 259.47, subdivisions 3 and 6, an adoption study is
complete for placement, even though the background checks required by paragraph
(b) have not been completed, if each prospective adoptive parent has completed
the affidavit allowed by paragraph (c) and the other requirements of this
section have been met. The background checks required by paragraph (b) must be
completed before an adoption petition is filed. If an adoption study has been
submitted to the court under section 259.47, subdivision 3 or 6 before the
background checks required by paragraph (b) were complete, an updated adoption
study report which includes the results of the background check must be filed
with the adoption petition. In the event that an agency is unable to complete
any of the records checks required by paragraph (b), the agency shall submit
with the petition to adopt an affidavit documenting the agency's efforts to
complete the checks.
Subd. 4. [UPDATES TO
ADOPTION STUDY; PERIOD OF VALIDITY.] An agency may
update an adoption study and report as needed, regardless of when the original
study and report or most recent update was completed. An update must be in a
format specified by the commissioner and must verify the continuing accuracy of
the elements of the original report
and document any changes to elements of the original
report. An update to a study and report not originally completed under this
section must ensure that the study and report, as updated, meet the requirements
of this section. An adoption study is valid if the report has been completed or
updated within the previous 12 months. Sec. 9. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 259.47,
subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3. [PREADOPTIVE CUSTODY ORDER.] (a) Before a child
is placed in a prospective adoptive home by a birth parent or legal guardian,
other than an agency, the placement must be approved by the district court in
the county where the prospective adoptive parent resides. An order under this
subdivision or subdivision 6 shall state that the prospective adoptive parent's
right to custody of the child is subject to the birth parent's right to custody
until the consents to the child's adoption become irrevocable. At the time of
placement, prospective adoptive parents must have for the child qualifying
existing coverage as defined in section 62L.02, subdivision 24, or other similar
comprehensive health care coverage. The prospective adoptive parent must meet
the residence requirements of section 259.22, subdivision 1, and must file with
the court an affidavit of intent to remain a resident of the state for at least
three months after the child is placed in the prospective adoptive home. The
prospective adoptive parent shall file with the court a notice of intent to file
an adoption petition and submit a written motion seeking an order granting
temporary preadoptive custody. The notice and motion required under this
subdivision may be considered by the court ex parte, without a hearing. The
prospective adoptive parent shall serve a copy of the notice and motion upon any
parent whose consent is required under section 259.24 or who is named in the
affidavit required under paragraph (b) if that person's mailing address is
known. The motion may be filed up to 60 days before the placement is to be made
and must include:
(1) the adoption study required under section 259.41;
(2) affidavits from the birth parents indicating their
support of the motion, or, if there is no affidavit from the birth father, an
affidavit from the birth mother under paragraph (b);
(3) an itemized statement of expenses that have been
paid and an estimate of expenses that will be paid by the prospective adoptive
parents to the birth parents, any agency, attorney, or other party in connection
with the prospective adoption;
(4) the name of counsel for each party, if any;
(5) a statement that the birth parents:
(i) have provided the social and medical history
required under section 259.43 to the prospective adoptive parent;
(ii) have received the written statement of their legal
rights and responsibilities under section 259.39; and
(iii) have been notified of their right to receive
counseling under subdivision 4; and
(6) the name of the agency chosen by the adoptive parent
to supervise the adoptive placement and complete the postplacement The court shall review the expense statement submitted
under this subdivision to determine whether payments made or to be made by the
prospective adoptive parent are lawful and in accordance with section 259.55,
subdivision 1.
(b) If the birth mother submits the affidavit required
in paragraph (a), clause (2), but the birth father fails to do so, the birth
mother must submit an additional affidavit that describes her good faith efforts
or efforts made on her behalf to identify and locate the birth father for
purposes of securing his consent. In the following circumstances the birth
mother may instead submit an affidavit stating on which ground she is exempt
from making efforts to identify and locate the father:
(1) the child was conceived as the result of incest or
rape;
(2) efforts to locate the father by the affiant or
anyone acting on the affiant's behalf could reasonably result in physical harm
to the birth mother or child; or
(3) efforts to locate the father by the affiant or
anyone acting on the affiant's behalf could reasonably result in severe
emotional distress of the birth mother or child.
A court shall consider the motion for temporary
preadoptive custody within 30 days of receiving the motion or by the anticipated
placement date stated in the motion, whichever comes sooner.
Sec. 10. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 259.47,
subdivision 6, is amended to read:
Subd. 6. [EMERGENCY ORDER.] (a) A court may issue an
emergency order granting temporary preadoptive custody of a child to a
prospective adoptive parent for up to 14 days (1) affidavits from the
prospective adoptive parents and birth parents indicating that an emergency
order is needed because of the unexpected premature birth of the child or other
specifically described extraordinary circumstances which prevented the
completion of the requirements of subdivision 3;
(2) the information required by
subdivision 3, paragraph (a), clauses (2) and (5), items (ii) and (iii); and
(3) either:
(i) a completed adoption study report which meets the requirements of section 259.41;
or
(ii) the affidavits (b) An order granting or denying the motion shall be
issued under this section within 24 hours of the time it is brought.
Notwithstanding section 259.23, any judge of district court may consider a
motion brought under this subdivision. An order granting the motion shall direct
that an adoption study be commenced immediately, if that has not occurred, and
that the agency conducting the study shall supervise the emergency placement.
(c) An emergency order under this subdivision expires 14
days after it is issued. If the requirements of subdivision 3 are completed and
a preadoptive custody motion is filed on or before the expiration of the
emergency order, placement may continue until the court rules on the motion. The
court shall consider the preadoptive custody motion within seven days of filing.
Sec. 11. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 259.47,
subdivision 7, is amended to read:
Subd. 7. [CONSENT; TIME FRAME; HEARING; VENUE;
COMMISSIONER'S FORM.] Not sooner than 72 hours after the birth of a child and
not later than 60 days after the child's placement in a prospective adoptive
home under this section, a person whose consent is required under section 259.24
shall execute a consent. A birth parent, whose consent is required under section
259.24 and who has chosen not to receive counseling through a licensed agency or
a licensed social services professional trained in adoption issues, shall appear
before a judge or judicial officer to sign the written consent to the child's
adoption by the prospective adoptive parent who has temporary preadoptive
custody of the child. Notwithstanding where the prospective adoptive parent
resides, the consent hearing may be held in any county in this state where the
birth parent is found. If a consent hearing is held in a
county other than where the prospective adoptive parent resides, the court shall
forward the executed consent to the district court in the county where the
prospective adoptive parent resides. If a birth parent has chosen to receive
counseling through a licensed agency or a licensed social services professional
trained in adoption issues, the birth parent may choose to execute a written
consent under section 259.24, subdivision 5. A person whose consent is required
under section 259.24, subdivision 2, may choose to execute consent at a judicial
hearing as described in this section or under the procedures in section 259.24,
subdivision 5.
The consent becomes irrevocable on the tenth working day
after it is given, except that if the consent was obtained by fraud, proceedings
to determine the existence of fraud shall be governed by section 259.24,
subdivision 6a. Until the consent becomes irrevocable, the child shall be
returned to the birth parent upon request.
The written consent under this subdivision must state
that:
(1) the birth parent has had the opportunity to consult
with independent legal counsel at the expense of the prospective adoptive
parent, unless the birth parent knowingly waived the opportunity;
(2) the birth parent was notified of the right to
receive counseling at the expense of the prospective adoptive parent and has
chosen to exercise or waive that right; and
(3) the birth parent was informed that if the birth
parent withdraws consent, the prospective adoptive parent cannot require the
birth parent to reimburse any costs the prospective adoptive parent has incurred
in connection with the adoption, including payments made to or on behalf of the
birth parent.
If a birth parent has chosen to have legal counsel, the
attorney must be present at the execution of consents. If a birth parent waives
counsel, the written waiver must be filed with the consent under this
subdivision.
The consent signed under this subdivision must be on a
form prepared by the commissioner and made available to agencies and court
administrators for public distribution.
Sec. 12. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 259.47,
subdivision 8, is amended to read:
Subd. 8. [ birth parent of the notifying birth parent's intent
regarding consent to adoption and shall notify the receiving birth parent that,
not later than 60 days after the date of service, the birth parent must either
consent or refuse to consent to the adoption. On the 61st day following service
of the notice required under this subdivision, a birth parent who fails to take
either of these actions, is deemed to have consented to the child's adoption
regarding the child. Sec. 13. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 259.47,
subdivision 10, is amended to read:
Subd. 10. [RECORDS.] Sec. 14. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 259.53,
subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. [NOTICE TO COMMISSIONER; (b) The court shall immediately
refer the petition to the agency specified below for completion of a
postplacement assessment and report as required by subdivision 2.
(1) If the child to be adopted
has been committed to the guardianship of the commissioner or an agency under
section 260.241 or an agency has been given authority to place the child under
section 259.25, the court shall refer the petition to that agency, unless
another agency is supervising the placement, in which case the court shall refer
the petition to the supervising agency.
(2) If the child to be adopted
has been placed in the petitioner's home by a direct adoptive placement, the
court shall refer the petition to the agency supervising the placement under
section 259.47, subdivision 3, paragraph (a), clause (6).
(3) If the child is to be
adopted by an individual who is related to the child as defined by section
245A.02, subdivision 13, and in all other instances not described in clause (1)
or (2), the court shall refer the petition to the local social services agency
of the county in which the prospective adoptive parent lives.
Sec. 15. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 259.53,
subdivision 2, is amended to read:
Subd. 2. [ADOPTION AGENCIES;
POSTPLACEMENT ASSESSMENT AND REPORT.] (a) The agency In making evaluations and
recommendations, the postplacement assessment and report must, at a minimum,
address the following:
(1) the level of adaptation by
the prospective adoptive parents to parenting the child;
(2) the health and well-being of
the child in the prospective adoptive parents' home;
(3) the level of incorporation
by the child into the prospective adoptive parents' home, extended family, and
community; and
(4) the level of inclusion of
the child's previous history into the prospective adoptive home, such as
cultural or ethnic practices, or contact with former foster parents or
biological relatives. (b) A postplacement adoption
report is valid for 12 months following its date of completion.
(c) If the petitioner is an
individual who is related to the child, as defined by section 245A.02,
subdivision 13, the agency, as part of its postplacement assessment and report
under paragraph (a), shall conduct a background check meeting the requirements
of section 259.41, subdivision 3, paragraph (b). The prospective adoptive parent
shall cooperate in the completion of the background check by supplying the
information and authorizations described in section 259.41, subdivision 3,
paragraph (a).
(d) If the report recommends
that the court not grant the petition to adopt the child, the provisions of this
paragraph apply. Unless the assessment and report were completed by the local
social services agency, the agency completing the report, at the time it files
the report with the court under paragraph (a), must provide a copy of the report
to the local social services agency in the county where the prospective adoptive
parent lives. The agency or local social services agency may recommend that the
court dismiss the petition. If the local social services agency determines that
continued placement in the home endangers the child's physical or emotional
health, the agency shall seek a court order to remove the child from the
home.
(e) If, through no fault of the
petitioner, the agency to whom the petition was referred under subdivision 1,
paragraph (b), fails to complete the assessment and file the report within 90
days of the date it received a copy of the adoption petition, the court may hear
the petition upon giving the agency and the local social services agency, if
different, five days notice by mail of the time and place of the hearing.
Sec. 16. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 259.55,
subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. [AUTHORIZED PAYMENTS.] In any adoption
under this chapter, a prospective adoptive parent or anyone acting in concert
with, at the direction of, or on behalf of a prospective adoptive parent may pay
only the following expenses of the birth parent:
(1) reasonable counseling, medical, and legal fees,
which shall be paid directly to the provider of the service;
(2) reasonable expenses for transportation, meals, and
lodging incurred for placement of the child or in order
to receive counseling, legal, or medical services related to the pregnancy,
birth, or placement;
(3) reasonable expenses for adoption services provided
by an agency at the request of the birth parent, which shall be paid directly to
the agency; and
(4) (i) The payments may cover
expenses incurred during the pregnancy-related incapacity but not for a period
longer than six weeks following delivery, unless the
court determines within the six-week period that the birth mother is unable to
be employed due to physical limitations relating to the birth of the child;
(ii) the payment shall not be contingent upon placement
of the child for adoption, consent to adoption, or cooperation in the completion
of the adoption; and
(iii) reasonable living expenses does not include
expenses for lost wages, gifts, educational expenses, or other similar expenses
of the birth mother.
Sec. 17. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 259.59,
subdivision 1, is amended to read:
Subdivision 1. Upon adoption, the child shall become the
legal child of the adopting persons and they shall become the legal parents of
the child with all the rights and duties between them of birth parents and
legitimate child. By virtue of the adoption the child shall inherit from the
adoptive parents or their relatives the same as though the child were the
natural child of the parents, and in case of the child's death intestate the
adoptive parents and their relatives shall inherit the child's estate as if they
had been the child's birth parents and relatives. After a decree of adoption is
entered the birth parents of an adopted child shall be relieved of all parental
responsibilities for the child, and they shall not exercise or have any rights
over the adopted child or the child's property. The child shall not owe the
birth parents or their relatives any legal duty nor shall the child inherit from
the birth parents or kindred, except as provided in subdivision 1a and section 257.022, subdivision 3a.
Sec. 18. [259.60] [INTERCOUNTRY ADOPTIONS; OBTAINING
AMENDED BIRTH CERTIFICATE.]
Subdivision 1. [VALIDITY OF
INTERCOUNTRY ADOPTION.] The adoption of a child by a
resident of this state under the laws of a foreign country is valid and binding
under the laws of this state if the validity of the foreign adoption has been
verified by the granting of an IR-3 visa for the child by the United States
Immigration and Naturalization Service.
Subd. 2. [AMENDED BIRTH
CERTIFICATE; PROCEDURE AND ORDER.] (a) Under the
procedures in paragraph (b), a person, whose adoption of a child under the laws
of a foreign country is valid in this state under subdivision 1, may petition
the district court in the county where the adoptive parent resides for a decree
confirming and recognizing the adoption and for a new birth certificate for the
child.
(b) A court shall issue the
decree and birth certificate upon receipt of the following documents:
(1) a petition by the adoptive
parent requesting that the court issue a Minnesota birth certificate, and
stating that the adoptive parent completed adoption of the child under the laws
of a foreign country and that the adoption is valid in this state under
subdivision 1. The petition must be in the form of a signed, sworn, and
notarized statement;
(2) a copy of the child's
original birth certificate, if available;
(3) a copy of the final adoption
certificate or equivalent as issued by the foreign jurisdiction;
(4) a copy of the child's
passport including the United States visa indicating IR-3 immigration status;
and
(5) certified English
translations of any of the documents in clauses (2) to (4) that are not written
in the English language.
Sec. 19. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 259.61, is
amended to read:
259.61 [HEARINGS, CONFIDENTIAL.]
All hearings held in proceedings under sections 259.21
to 259.63 shall be confidential and shall be held in closed court without
admittance of any persons other than the petitioners, their witnesses, the
commissioner of human services or an agency, or their authorized
representatives, attorneys, and persons entitled to notice by sections 259.21 to
259.63, except by order of the court. The files and records of the court in
adoption proceedings shall not be open to inspection by any person except the
commissioner of human services or the commissioner's representatives, an agency
acting under section 259.47, subdivision 10, or upon an order of the court
expressly so permitting pursuant to a petition setting forth the reasons
therefor. In a stepparent adoption, upon receiving a
written request from a parent whose parental rights would be or have been
severed by the adoption under section 259.59, the court or the commissioner may
confirm in writing whether or not an adoption decree has been granted and, if
so, the date of the adoption decree.
Sec. 20. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 259.67,
subdivision 7, is amended to read:
Subd. 7. [REIMBURSEMENT OF COSTS.] (a) Subject to rules of the commissioner, and the
provisions of this subdivision a Minnesota-licensed child-placing agency or (b) A Minnesota-licensed
child-placing agency or (c) When a local social services
agency uses a purchase of service agreement to provide services reimbursable
under a reimbursement agreement, the commissioner may make reimbursement
payments directly to the agency providing the service if direct reimbursement is
specified by the purchase of service agreement, and if the request for
reimbursement is submitted by the local social services agency along with a
verification that the service was provided.
Sec. 21. [259.78] [GRANDPARENT VISITATION.]
Grandparent visitation with an
adopted child is governed by section 257.022.
Sec. 22. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 259.79,
subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3. [RETENTION; RECORDS
MADE PUBLIC.] All adoption records shall be retained on a permanent basis
under a protected record system which ensures confidentiality and lasting
preservation. All adoption records shall become public
records on the 100th anniversary of the granting of the adoption decree.
Sec. 23. Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 259.83,
subdivision 3, is amended to read:
Subd. 3. [IDENTIFYING INFORMATION.] In
in favor of the
commissioner throughout the entire operating period of the agency, to cover
the cost of transfer of records to and storage of
records by the agency which has agreed, according to
rule established by the commissioner, to receive the applicant agency's
records if the applicant agency voluntarily or
involuntarily ceases operation and fails to provide for proper transfer of the
records in order to comply with the requirements of
section 259.79. The bond must be made in favor of
the agency which has agreed to receive the records; and
The court shall consider the amount
of personal contact between the parents or grandparents of the party and the
child prior to the application.
the child is sought to be
adopted by a stepparent;
(c) the child is sought to
be adopted by a relative related by blood or marriage
within the third degree an individual who is related
to the child, as defined by section 245A.02, subdivision 13;
(d) (c) the child has been lawfully placed under the laws
of another state while the child and petitioner resided in that other state;
(e) (d) the court waives the requirement of this
subdivision in the best interests of the child or petitioners, provided that the
adoption does not involve a placement as defined in section 259.21, subdivision
8; or
(f) (e) the child has been lawfully placed under section
259.47.
prepared the postplacement adoptive study is supervising the placement shall file with the
district court in the county where the prospective adoptive parent resides a
motion for an order and a report recommending one of the following:
or
and the study,
except as allowed by section 259.47, subdivision 6. In an agency placement, the
report must be completed and filed with the
court at the time the adoption petition is filed. In a direct adoptive
placement, the report must be filed with the court in support of a motion for
temporary preadoptive custody under section 259.47, subdivision 3, or, if the study and report are complete, in support of
an emergency order under section 259.47, subdivision 6. The study and report
shall be completed by a licensed child-placing agency and must be thorough and
comprehensive. The study and report shall be paid for by the prospective
adoptive parent, except as otherwise required under section 259.67 or 259.73.
stepparent placement for
adoption with an individual who is related to the child,
as defined by section 245A.02, subdivision 13, is not subject to this
section except as required by section 259.53,
subdivision 2, paragraph (c).
of criminal conviction data, data on substantiated
maltreatment of a child under section 626.556, and domestic violence data of
each person over the age of 13 living in the home. The prospective adoptive
parents, the bureau of criminal apprehension, and other state, county, and local
agencies, after written notice to the subject of the study, shall give the
agency completing the adoption study substantiated criminal conviction data and
reports about maltreatment of minors and vulnerable adults and domestic
violence. The adoption study must also include a check of the juvenile court
records of each person over the age of 13 living in the home. Notwithstanding
provisions of section 260.161 to the contrary, the juvenile court shall release
the requested information to the agency completing the adoption study. The study
must include as required by subdivision 3, and
an evaluation of the effect of a conviction or finding of substantiated
maltreatment on the ability to care for a child;
The adoption study must include
at least one in-home visit with the prospective adoptive parent.
An adoption study report is valid for 12 months following
its date of completion.
A (a)
At the time an adoption study is commenced, each prospective adoptive parent
seeking a study under this section must:
,
must;
,; and
must (4) provide a set of fingerprints, which shall be
forwarded to the bureau of criminal apprehension to facilitate the criminal
conviction background check required under clause
(1) paragraph (b).
adoption study assessment
required by section 259.53, subdivision 9 2.
if the
following conditions are met:.
(1) the motion is The prospective adoptive parent shall submit a written
motion to the court. The motion must be supported by:
from each prospective adoptive parent stating whether they
or any person residing in the household have been convicted of a crime or are
the subject of an open investigation of, or have been the subject of a
substantiated allegation of, child or vulnerable-adult abuse within the past ten
years. If so, a complete description of the crime, open investigation, or
substantiated abuse and a complete description of any sentence, treatment, or
disposition must be included. If, at any time before the adoption is final, a
court receives evidence leading it to conclude that a prospective adoptive
parent knowingly gave false information in this affidavit, it shall be presumed
that the placement of the child with the adoptive parent is not in the best
interests of the child; and
(iii) the information required
by subdivision 3, paragraph (a), clauses (2), and (5), items (ii) and (iii);
and
(iv) affidavits from the
prospective adoptive parent and birth parent indicating that an emergency order
is needed because of the unexpected premature birth of the child or other
specifically described extraordinary circumstances which prevented the
completion of the requirements of this section; and allowed by section 259.41, subdivision 3, paragraph
(c).
(2) The court shall issue the emergency order if it concludes from
the record submitted that the emergency order will preserve not compromise the
health and or safety of
the child.
NOTICE AND CONSENT
DEADLINE; CONSENT HEARING; BIRTH PARENT NOT APPEARING FAILURE TO EXECUTE CONSENTS.] (a) With the exception of cases
where a person who receives notice under paragraph (b) section 259.24,
subdivision 2a, if a birth parent whose consent is required under section
259.24 does not appear at a consent hearing under this
section execute a consent by the end of the period
specified in section 259.24, subdivision 2a, the agency which is supervising
the placement shall notify the court and the court shall issue an order
regarding continued placement of the child. The court shall order the local
social services agency to determine whether to commence proceedings for
termination of parental rights on grounds of abandonment as defined in section
260.221. The court may disregard the six- and 12-month requirements of section
260.221, paragraph (b), clause (1), item (i), in finding abandonment if the
birth parent has failed to execute a consent within the time required under this
section and has made no effort to obtain custody of the child.
(b) A birth parent who intends
to consent to the adoption of a child shall notify the other birth parent of
that fact if the other birth parent's consent to the adoption is required under
section 259.24, subdivision 1, at the time of placement. Notice shall be
provided to the other birth parent by personal service in the manner provided in
the rules of civil procedure for service of a summons and complaint within 72
hours of the date on which the child is placed. The notice shall inform the
All records
filed with the court In any adoption completed
according to a direct adoptive placement under this section, a record, consisting of the adoption study report and
updates required by section 259.41; the birth parent history required by section
259.43; the original birth certificate; and the hospital discharge form,
must be permanently maintained by the agency which completed the adoption study supervised the placement. The
birth parents, adoptive parents, or their representatives shall provide copies
of these documents to the agency upon request. Notwithstanding the
provisions of section 259.61, an agency shall, upon request, be given any court
records needed to provide postadoption services pursuant according to
section 259.83 at the request of adoptive parents, birth parents, or adopted
individuals age 19 or older.
COUNTY DUTIES REFERRAL FOR
POSTPLACEMENT ASSESSMENT.] (a) Upon the filing
of a petition for adoption of a child the court administrator shall immediately
transmit a copy of the petition to the commissioner of human services. and the local social services
agency of the county in which the prospective adoptive parent lives. Except as
provided in subdivision 2, the local social services agency shall verify the
allegations of the petition, investigate the conditions and antecedents of the
child for the purpose of ascertaining whether the child is a proper subject for
adoption, whether the proposed adoptive home and the child are suited to each
other and whether the proposed adoption meets the preferences described in
section 259.57, subdivision 2. The report of the local social services agency
shall be confidential, and the records of the local social services agency or
the contents of them shall not be disclosed either directly or indirectly to any
person other than the commissioner of human services or a judge of the court
having jurisdiction of the matter. Within 90 days after the receipt of the copy
of the petition the local social services agency shall submit to the court and
the commissioner a full report in writing with recommendations as to the
granting of the petition. If the report is not returned within the 90 days,
without fault of petitioner, the court may hear the petition upon giving the
local social services agency five days notice by mail of the time and place of
the hearing. If the report disapproves of the adoption of the child, the local
social services agency may recommend that the court dismiss the petition.
Notwithstanding the provisions of subdivision 1, if the
child to be adopted has been committed to the guardianship of an agency pursuant
to section 260.241, or if the child has been surrendered to an agency pursuant
to section 259.25, or the child's direct adoptive placement is being supervised
by an agency pursuant to section 259.47 the court shall refer the adoption
petition to the agency, or, if the adopting parent has a stepparent relationship
to the child, to the local social services agency of the county in which the
adoption is pending.
or local social services agency, within 90 days of receipt
of a copy of the adoption petition, to which the
petition has been referred under subdivision 1 shall conduct a postplacement assessment and file a report with the court a
within 90 days of receipt of a copy of the adoption
petition. The agency shall send a copy of the report to the commissioner at the
time it files the report with the court. The assessment and report of its investigation of must
evaluate the environment and antecedents of the child to be adopted and of, the home of the
petitioners, and its
determination whether the home of placement with the petitioners meets the preferences needs of the child
as described in section 259.57, subdivision 2. The
report must include a recommendation to the court as to whether the petition
should or should not be granted.
If the report disapproves of
the adoption of the child, the agency or local social services agency may
recommend that the court dismiss the petition. In the case of a direct adoptive
placement under section 259.47, a postplacement adoption study completed under
section 259.47, subdivision 9, shall be considered as meeting the requirement
for a report under this section.
(i) reasonable living
expenses of the birth mother which are needed to maintain an adequate standard
of living which the birth mother is unable to otherwise maintain because of loss
of income or other support resulting from the pregnancy.
county local social service services agency
shall receive a reimbursement from the commissioner equal to 100 percent of the
reasonable and appropriate cost of providing adoption services for a child
certified as eligible for adoption assistance. Such assistance may include
adoptive family recruitment, counseling, and special training when needed. A
Minnesota-licensed child-placing agency shall receive reimbursement for adoption
services it purchases for or directly provides to an eligible child. A county local social service services agency
shall receive such reimbursement only for adoption services it purchases for an
eligible child.
county local social service services agency seeking reimbursement under this
subdivision shall enter into a reimbursement agreement with the commissioner
before providing adoption services for which reimbursement is sought. No
reimbursement under this subdivision shall be made to an agency for services
provided prior to entering a reimbursement agreement. Separate reimbursement
agreements shall be made for each child and separate records shall be kept on
each child for whom a reimbursement agreement is made. Funds encumbered and
obligated under such an agreement for the child remain available until the terms
of the agreement are fulfilled or the agreement is terminated.
agency adoptive placements made on and after August 1,
1982, the agency responsible for or supervising the
placement shall obtain from the birth parents named on the original birth
certificate an affidavit attesting to the following:
Abrams | Erhardt | Juhnke | Mares | Paymar | Swenson, D. |
Anderson, B. | Evans | Kahn | Mariani | Pelowski | Swenson, H. |
Anderson, I. | Farrell | Kalis | Marko | Peterson | Sykora |
Bakk | Finseth | Kielkucki | McElroy | Pugh | Tingelstad |
Bettermann | Folliard | Kinkel | McGuire | Rest | Tomassoni |
Biernat | Garcia | Knight | Milbert | Reuter | Tompkins |
Bishop | Goodno | Knoblach | Molnau | Rhodes | Trimble |
Boudreau | Greenfield | Koppendrayer | Mulder | Rifenberg | Tuma |
Bradley | Greiling | Koskinen | Mullery | Rostberg | Tunheim |
Broecker | Gunther | Kraus | Munger | Rukavina | Van Dellen |
Carlson | Haas | Krinkie | Murphy | Schumacher | Vickerman |
Chaudhary | Harder | Kubly | Ness | Seagren | Wagenius |
Clark | Hasskamp | Kuisle | Nornes | Seifert | Weaver |
Commers | Hausman | Larsen | Olson, E. | Sekhon | Wejcman |
Daggett | Hilty | Leighton | Olson, M. | Skare | Wenzel |
Davids | Holsten | Leppik | Opatz | Skoglund | Westfall |
Dawkins | Huntley | Lieder | Orfield | Slawik | Westrom |
Dehler | Jaros | Lindner | Osskopp | Smith | Winter |
Delmont | Jefferson | Long | Osthoff | Solberg | Wolf |
Dempsey | Jennings | Luther | Ozment | Stanek | Workman |
Dorn | Johnson, A. | Macklin | Paulsen | Stang | Spk. Carruthers |
Entenza | Johnson, R. | Mahon | Pawlenty | Sviggum | |
The bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.
Pursuant to rule 1.10, Solberg requested immediate consideration of S. F. No. 164.
S. F. No. 164, A bill for an act relating to agriculture; conforming certain food rules with federal regulations; eliminating a requirement concerning llamas; regulating raising of bison; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, sections 31.101; 31.102, subdivision 1; 31.103, subdivision 1; and 31.104; proposing coding for new law in Minnesota Statutes, chapter 17; repealing Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 17.456, subdivision 4.
The bill was read for the third time and placed upon its
final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of the bill and
the roll was called. There were 131 yeas and 0 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Anderson, B. | Evans | Kahn | Mares | Pawlenty | Sviggum |
Anderson, I. | Farrell | Kalis | Mariani | Paymar | Swenson, D. |
Bakk | Finseth | Kelso | Marko | Pelowski | Swenson, H. |
Bettermann | Folliard | Kielkucki | McCollum | Peterson | Sykora |
Biernat | Garcia | Kinkel | McElroy | Pugh | Tingelstad |
Bishop | Goodno | Knight | McGuire | Rest | Tomassoni |
Boudreau | Greenfield | Knoblach | Milbert | Reuter | Tompkins |
Bradley | Greiling | Koppendrayer | Molnau | Rhodes | Trimble |
Broecker | Gunther | Koskinen | Mulder | Rifenberg | Tuma |
Carlson | Haas | Kraus | Mullery | Rostberg | Tunheim |
Chaudhary | Harder | Krinkie | Munger | Rukavina | Van Dellen |
Clark | Hasskamp | Kubly | Murphy | Schumacher | Vickerman |
Commers | Hausman | Kuisle | Ness | Seagren | Wagenius |
Daggett | Hilty | Larsen | Nornes | Seifert | Weaver |
Davids | Holsten | Leighton | Olson, E. | Sekhon | Wejcman |
Dawkins | Huntley | Leppik | Olson, M. | Skare | Wenzel |
Dehler | Jaros | Lieder | Opatz | Skoglund | Westfall |
Delmont | Jefferson | Lindner | Orfield | Slawik | Westrom |
Dempsey | Jennings | Long | Osskopp | Smith | Winter |
Dorn | Johnson, A. | Luther | Osthoff | Solberg | Wolf |
Entenza | Johnson, R. | Macklin | Ozment | Stanek | Workman |
Erhardt | Juhnke | Mahon | Paulsen | Stang | |
The bill was passed and its title agreed to.
Pursuant to rule 1.10, Solberg requested immediate consideration of S. F. No. 184.
S. F. No. 184 was reported to the House.
Wagenius moved to amend S. F. No. 184, the unofficial engrossment, as follows:
Page 12, delete section 2
Renumber the sections in sequence and correct internal references
Amend the title accordingly
The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.
S. F. No. 184, A bill for an act relating to the environment; modifying requirements relating to toxics in products; amending Minnesota Statutes 1996, section 115A.9651.
The bill was read for the third time, as amended, and
placed upon its final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of the bill and
the roll was called. There were 133 yeas and 0 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Abrams | Evans | Kalis | Marko | Peterson | Tingelstad |
Anderson, B. | Farrell | Kelso | McCollum | Pugh | Tomassoni |
Anderson, I. | Finseth | Kielkucki | McElroy | Rest | Tompkins |
Bakk | Folliard | Kinkel | McGuire | Reuter | Trimble |
Bettermann | Garcia | Knight | Milbert | Rhodes | Tuma |
Biernat | Goodno | Knoblach | Molnau | Rifenberg | Tunheim |
Bishop | Greenfield | Koppendrayer | Mulder | Rostberg | Van Dellen |
Boudreau | Greiling | Koskinen | Mullery | Rukavina | Vickerman |
Bradley | Gunther | Kraus | Munger | Schumacher | Wagenius |
Broecker | Haas | Krinkie | Murphy | Seagren | Weaver |
Carlson | Harder | Kubly | Ness | Seifert | Wejcman |
Chaudhary | Hasskamp | Kuisle | Nornes | Sekhon | Wenzel |
Clark | Hausman | Larsen | Olson, E. | Skare | Westfall |
Commers | Hilty | Leighton | Olson, M. | Skoglund | Westrom |
Daggett | Holsten | Leppik | Opatz | Slawik | Winter |
Davids | Huntley | Lieder | Orfield | Smith | Wolf |
Dawkins | Jaros | Lindner | Osskopp | Solberg | Workman |
Dehler | Jefferson | Long | Osthoff | Stanek | Spk. Carruthers |
Delmont | Jennings | Luther | Ozment | Stang | |
Dempsey | Johnson, A. | Macklin | Paulsen | Sviggum | |
Dorn | Johnson, R. | Mahon | Pawlenty | Swenson, D. | |
Entenza | Juhnke | Mares | Paymar | Swenson, H. | |
Erhardt | Kahn | Mariani | Pelowski | Sykora | |
The bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.
Pursuant to rule 1.10, Solberg requested immediate consideration of S. F. No. 173.
S. F. No. 173 was reported to the House.
Kahn moved to amend S. F. No. 173 as follows:
Page 13, delete lines 24 to 36
Page 14, delete lines 1 to 6
Page 14, line 7, delete "3" and insert "2"
The motion prevailed and the amendment was adopted.
S. F. No. 173, A bill for an act relating to commerce; providing for the use, validity, and security of electronic signatures and messages transmitted in commerce; prescribing penalties; proposing coding for new law as Minnesota Statutes, chapter 325K.
The bill was read for the third time, as amended, and
placed upon its final passage.
The question was taken on the passage of the bill and
the roll was called. There were 95 yeas and 38 nays as follows:
Those who voted in the affirmative were:
Anderson, I. | Farrell | Johnson, R. | Marko | Paymar | Sykora |
Bakk | Folliard | Juhnke | McCollum | Pelowski | Tingelstad |
Biernat | Garcia | Kahn | McElroy | Peterson | Tomassoni |
Bishop | Goodno | Kalis | McGuire | Pugh | Tompkins |
Carlson | Greenfield | Kelso | Milbert | Rest | Trimble |
Chaudhary | Greiling | Kinkel | Mulder | Reuter | Tuma |
Clark | Gunther | Knoblach | Mullery | Rhodes | Tunheim |
Commers | Harder | Koskinen | Munger | Rukavina | Wagenius |
Davids | Hasskamp | Kubly | Murphy | Schumacher | Weaver |
Dawkins | Hausman | Leighton | Ness | Sekhon | Wejcman |
Dehler | Hilty | Leppik | Olson, E. | Skare | Wenzel |
Delmont | Huntley | Lieder | Opatz | Skoglund | Westrom |
Dorn | Jaros | Long | Orfield | Slawik | Winter |
Entenza | Jefferson | Luther | Osskopp | Solberg | Wolf |
Erhardt | Jennings | Mahon | Osthoff | Stanek | Spk. Carruthers |
Evans | Johnson, A. | Mariani | Pawlenty | Stang | |
Those who voted in the negative were:
Abrams | Dempsey | Kraus | Molnau | Seagren | Vickerman |
Anderson, B. | Finseth | Krinkie | Nornes | Seifert | Westfall |
Bettermann | Haas | Kuisle | Olson, M. | Smith | Workman |
Boudreau | Holsten | Larsen | Ozment | Sviggum | |
Bradley | Kielkucki | Lindner | Paulsen | Swenson, D. | |
Broecker | Knight | Macklin | Rifenberg | Swenson, H. | |
Daggett | Koppendrayer | Mares | Rostberg | Van Dellen | |
The bill was passed, as amended, and its title agreed to.
Winter moved that the remaining bills on Special Orders for today be continued. The motion prevailed.
Winter moved that the bills on General Orders for today be continued. The motion prevailed.
Workman moved that the following statement be printed in the Journal of the House: "It was my intention to vote in the negative on Tuesday, May 13, 1997, when the vote was taken on the final passage of H. F. No. 632." The motion prevailed.
Dorn moved that the following statement be printed in the Journal of the House: "It was my intention to vote in the affirmative on Tuesday, May 13, 1997, when the vote was taken on the repassage of S. F. No. 1881, as amended by Conference." The motion prevailed.
Huntley moved that H. F. No. 2204 be returned to its author. The motion prevailed.
Winter moved that when the House adjourns today it adjourn until 10:00 a.m., Thursday, May 15, 1997. The motion prevailed.
Winter moved that the House adjourn. The motion prevailed, and Speaker pro tempore Trimble declared the House stands adjourned until 10:00 a.m., Thursday, May 15, 1997.
Edward A. Burdick, Chief Clerk, House of Representatives